Top 100 Questions of Agronomy for UPCATET PG (Part 1)

Q1. The practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land with definite row arrangement is called:
a) Mixed cropping
b) Intercropping
c) Relay cropping
d) Sequence cropping

Answer: b) Intercropping
Explanation: Intercropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same field with definite row patterns (like 1:1, 1:2). Mixed cropping doesn’t have definite row arrangement, relay cropping involves planting second crop before first is harvested, and sequence cropping involves crops in sequence on same land.

Q2. In Uttar Pradesh, which cropping system is most prevalent in wheat-based systems?
a) Rice-Wheat
b) Cotton-Wheat
c) Sugarcane-Wheat
d) Maize-Wheat

Answer: a) Rice-Wheat
Explanation: Rice-Wheat is the dominant cropping system in Uttar Pradesh, covering about 4.5 million hectares, especially in western and central UP.

Q3. The process by which ammonium nitrogen is converted to nitrate nitrogen is called:
a) Nitrification
b) Denitrification
c) Ammonification
d) Nitrogen fixation

Answer: a) Nitrification
Explanation: Nitrification is a two-step process: Nitrosomonas converts NH₄⁺ to NO₂⁻, and Nitrobacter converts NO₂⁻ to NO₃⁻. This occurs in well-aerated soils.

Q4. Which of the following is NOT a method of soil fertility evaluation?
a) Nutrient deficiency symptoms
b) Soil testing
c) Plant tissue analysis
d) Bulk density measurement

Answer: d) Bulk density measurement
Explanation: Bulk density measures soil compaction/porosity, not fertility. Soil fertility is evaluated through deficiency symptoms, soil testing, tissue analysis, and biological tests.

Q5. The ratio of water stored in root zone to water delivered to field is:
a) Water use efficiency
b) Water application efficiency
c) Conveyance efficiency
d) Storage efficiency

Answer: d) Storage efficiency
Explanation: Storage efficiency = (Water stored in root zone / Water delivered to field) × 100. Application efficiency relates to water applied vs stored, conveyance efficiency relates to canal water transport.

Q6. Which irrigation method has highest water use efficiency?
a) Flood irrigation
b) Furrow irrigation
c) Sprinkler irrigation
d) Drip irrigation

Answer: d) Drip irrigation
Explanation: Drip irrigation achieves 90-95% efficiency by delivering water directly to root zone, minimizing evaporation and runoff losses.

Q7. The phenomenon where herbicides become less effective with repeated use is called:
a) Herbicide resistance
b) Herbicide tolerance
c) Cross resistance
d) Multiple resistance

Answer: a) Herbicide resistance
Explanation: Herbicide resistance is the inherited ability of a weed to survive a herbicide dose normally lethal to that species. It develops through selection pressure.

Q8. Which of the following is a contact herbicide?
a) 2,4-D
b) Glyphosate
c) Paraquat
d) Atrazine

Answer: c) Paraquat
Explanation: Paraquat is a contact herbicide that kills tissues on contact. 2,4-D and glyphosate are systemic, while atrazine is a photosynthesis inhibitor.

Q9. The critical stage for irrigation in wheat is:
a) Crown root initiation
b) Tillering
c) Flowering
d) Milk stage

Answer: a) Crown root initiation
Explanation: Crown root initiation stage (21-25 DAS) is most critical for irrigation in wheat, as water stress here significantly reduces tiller number and yield.

Q10. Photorespiration occurs in:
a) C3 plants
b) C4 plants
c) CAM plants
d) All of the above

Answer: a) C3 plants
Explanation: Photorespiration is significant in C3 plants (wheat, rice, soybean) due to oxygenase activity of RuBisCO. C4 plants minimize it through spatial compartmentalization.

Q11. The practice of leaving land fallow to conserve soil moisture is called:
a) Contour farming
b) Strip cropping
c) Ley farming
d) Summer fallowing

Answer: d) Summer fallowing
Explanation: Summer fallowing conserves rainwater by leaving land uncropped during rainy season, storing moisture for next crop. Common in dryland areas with limited rainfall.

Q12. Which of these is a drought evading crop?
a) Pearl millet
b) Chickpea
c) Pigeon pea
d) Sorghum

Answer: b) Chickpea
Explanation: Chickpea is a drought evading (escaping) crop as it completes life cycle before onset of severe drought. Pearl millet and sorghum are drought resistant.

Q13. The percentage of nitrogen in urea is:
a) 21%
b) 46%
c) 33%
d) 82%

Answer: b) 46%
Explanation: Urea (CO(NH₂)₂) contains 46% N, making it the highest nitrogen-containing solid fertilizer. Ammonium nitrate has 33-34%, ammonium sulfate 21%.

Q14. Neem-coated urea was introduced to:
a) Increase nitrogen content
b) Reduce leaching losses
c) Improve soil structure
d) Enhance phosphorus availability

Answer: b) Reduce leaching losses
Explanation: Neem coating acts as a nitrification inhibitor, slowing conversion of ammonium to nitrate, thus reducing leaching and volatilization losses.

Q15. Which of the following is NOT a component of integrated nutrient management?
a) Chemical fertilizers
b) Organic manures
c) Biofertilizers
d) Herbicides

Answer: d) Herbicides
Explanation: INM involves optimizing benefits from chemical, organic, and biological nutrient sources. Herbicides are for weed control, not nutrient management.

Q16. The C:N ratio ideal for compost is:
a) 10:1
b) 20:1
c) 30:1
d) 40:1

Answer: c) 30:1
Explanation: A C:N ratio of 30:1 is optimal for composting. Higher ratios slow decomposition, lower ratios cause nitrogen loss as ammonia.

Q17. Elevated CO₂ concentration benefits which type of plants most?
a) C3 plants
b) C4 plants
c) CAM plants
d) All equally

Answer: a) C3 plants
Explanation: C3 plants show 30-60% yield increase with doubled CO₂ due to reduced photorespiration. C4 plants show only 10-20% increase as they already concentrate CO₂.

Q18. The phenomenon where warming reduces grain filling duration in crops is:
a) Heat stress
b) Phenological shift
c) Thermal acceleration
d) Photothermal quotient

Answer: b) Phenological shift
Explanation: Phenological shift refers to changes in timing of developmental stages. Warming accelerates development, reducing grain filling period and potentially yield.

Q19. In CRD, the basic principle is:
a) Local control
b) Replication
c) Randomization
d) All of these

Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: CRD (Completely Randomized Design) follows all three principles: replication, randomization, and local control, though local control is through randomization itself.

Q20. The coefficient of variation (CV%) is calculated as:
a) (Mean/Standard deviation) × 100
b) (Standard deviation/Mean) × 100
c) (Variance/Mean) × 100
d) (Mean/Variance) × 100

Answer: b) (Standard deviation/Mean) × 100
Explanation: CV% = (σ/μ) × 100, where σ is standard deviation and μ is mean. It measures relative variability independent of units.

Q21. The critical stage for irrigation in rice is:
a) Tillering
b) Panicle initiation
c) Flowering
d) All of these

Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: Rice is sensitive at all three stages: tillering (tiller number), panicle initiation (panicle number), flowering (pollination). Flowering is most sensitive.

Q22. Which variety of wheat is most suitable for late sowing in UP?
a) HD 2967
b) PBW 343
c) HD 3086
d) DBW 17

Answer: c) HD 3086
Explanation: HD 3086 is heat tolerant and suitable for late sowing (up to December) in UP conditions, with maturity in 120-125 days.

Q23. The minimum seed certification standards for foundation seed of wheat (physical purity) is:
a) 98%
b) 99%
c) 99.5%
d) 100%

Answer: b) 99%
Explanation: As per Indian Minimum Seed Certification Standards, foundation seed of wheat requires 99% physical purity, 85% germination, and 1% inert matter maximum.

Q24. Tetrazolium test is used to determine:
a) Physical purity
b) Genetic purity
c) Seed viability
d) Moisture content

Answer: c) Seed viability
Explanation: Tetrazolium test stains living tissue red, indicating seed viability quickly (24-48 hours). It’s a biochemical test for estimating germination potential.

Q25. The practice of growing trees with agricultural crops is called:
a) Silvipasture
b) Agrisilviculture
c) Hortisilviculture
d) Agrihorticulture

Answer: b) Agrisilviculture
Explanation: Agrisilviculture combines trees + crops. Silvipasture combines trees + pasture/animals, Hortisilviculture combines trees + fruits, Agrihorticulture combines crops + fruits.

Q26. Which green manure crop contains highest nitrogen?
a) Sunnhemp
b) Dhaincha
c) Sesbania
d) Cowpea

Answer: b) Dhaincha
Explanation: Dhaincha (Sesbania aculeata) contains 3.5% N, highest among common green manures. Sunnhemp has 2.5%, Sesbania rostrata 2.8%.

Q27. GPS in precision agriculture stands for:
a) Global Positioning System
b) Geographical Point System
c) Ground Positioning System
d) Grid Point System

Answer: a) Global Positioning System
Explanation: GPS uses satellite signals to determine exact location on earth, enabling variable rate applications, yield mapping, and guided machinery in precision agriculture.

Q28. The practice of applying inputs based on spatial variability is:
a) Site-specific management
b) Integrated management
c) Conservation agriculture
d) Organic farming

Answer: a) Site-specific management
Explanation: Site-specific management uses GIS, GPS, and sensors to apply fertilizers, water, pesticides variably based on within-field variability.

Q29. Which district of UP is known as “Sugar Bowl”?
a) Meerut
b) Saharanpur
c) Bareilly
d) Gorakhpur

Answer: b) Saharanpur
Explanation: Saharanpur district has highest sugarcane productivity in UP (>80 t/ha) and numerous sugar mills, earning it the title “Sugar Bowl of UP.”

Q30. The state soil of Uttar Pradesh is:
a) Alluvial soil
b) Black soil
c) Red soil
d) Laterite soil

Answer: a) Alluvial soil
Explanation: About 65% of UP’s area is covered by alluvial soils (Gangetic alluvium), making it the dominant and state-representative soil type.

Q31. The tillage operation performed to create fine seedbed after primary tillage is:
a) Primary tillage
b) Secondary tillage
c) Zero tillage
d) Conservation tillage

Answer: b) Secondary tillage
Explanation: Secondary tillage (harrowing, leveling) follows primary tillage (plowing) to create fine tilth, incorporate fertilizers, and control weeds. Primary tillage breaks soil, secondary tillage refines it.

Q32. Minimum tillage helps in:
a) Increasing soil organic matter
b) Reducing soil erosion
c) Conserving soil moisture
d) All of the above

Answer: d) All of the above
Explanation: Minimum tillage reduces soil disturbance, maintaining soil structure, increasing organic matter, reducing erosion, and conserving moisture by minimizing evaporation.

Q33. The watershed development program launched in 1973-74 is:
a) NWDPRA
b) DPAP
c) IWDP
d) RVP

Answer: b) DPAP
Explanation: Drought Prone Areas Programme (DPAP) started in 1973-74 for watershed development in drought-prone areas. NWDPRA started in 1990-91, IWDP in 1989-90.

Q34. Which crop is known as “Camel crop” due to its drought tolerance?
a) Pearl millet
b) Sorghum
c) Barley
d) Chickpea

Answer: a) Pearl millet
Explanation: Pearl millet (Bajra) is called “Camel crop” due to exceptional drought tolerance, deep root system, and ability to grow in low rainfall (250-400 mm) areas.

Q35. The quantitative measure of day length required for flowering is:
a) Photoperiodism
b) Thermoregulation
c) Vernalization
d) Phototropism

Answer: a) Photoperiodism
Explanation: Photoperiodism is response to day/night length affecting flowering. Short-day plants flower when days are shorter than critical length, long-day plants when longer.

Q36. Which wheat variety requires vernalization?
a) Spring wheat
b) Winter wheat
c) Both
d) Neither

Answer: b) Winter wheat
Explanation: Winter wheat requires vernalization (exposure to cold temperatures) to flower. Spring wheat doesn’t require cold treatment.

Q37. The recovery efficiency of nitrogen in rice under flooded conditions is approximately:
a) 20-30%
b) 30-40%
c) 40-50%
d) 60-70%

Answer: a) 20-30%
Explanation: N recovery in flooded rice is low (20-30%) due to losses via denitrification, volatilization, and leaching. In upland conditions, it’s 40-50%.

Q38. The most efficient method of phosphorus application is:
a) Broadcast
b) Deep placement
c) Band placement
d) Foliar spray

Answer: c) Band placement
Explanation: Band placement near root zone reduces P fixation in soil, increasing availability. Broadcast leads to more fixation with soil particles.

Q39. Irrigation water requirement does NOT include:
a) Crop water requirement
b) Leaching requirement
c) Application losses
d) Rainfall effective

Answer: d) Rainfall effective
Explanation: IWR = CWR + LR + AL – ER, where ER is effective rainfall. So effective rainfall is subtracted, not added to irrigation requirement.

Q40. The irrigation method most suitable for saline soils is:
a) Flood irrigation
b) Furrow irrigation
c) Sprinkler irrigation
d) Sub-surface irrigation

Answer: a) Flood irrigation
Explanation: Flood irrigation helps leach salts from root zone in saline soils. Sprinkler can cause leaf burn from salts, furrow concentrates salts in ridges.

Q41. The herbicide used for Phalaris minor control in wheat is:
a) 2,4-D
b) Isoproturon
c) Glyphosate
d) Atrazine

Answer: b) Isoproturon
Explanation: Isoproturon is selective herbicide for Phalaris minor (canary grass) control in wheat. Sulfosulfuron and clodinafop are also used.

Q42. The critical period of crop-weed competition in rice is:
a) 15-30 DAS
b) 30-45 DAS
c) 45-60 DAS
d) Entire growth period

Answer: b) 30-45 DAS
Explanation: In transplanted rice, critical period is 30-45 days after transplanting. During this period, weeds must be controlled to prevent yield loss.

Q43. The Universal Soil Loss Equation is A = R × K × L × S × C × P. ‘C’ represents:
a) Climate factor
b) Crop management factor
c) Conservation practice factor
d) Soil erodibility factor

Answer: b) Crop management factor
Explanation: In USLE: R=rainfall erosivity, K=soil erodibility, L=slope length, S=slope steepness, C=crop management, P=conservation practice factor.

Q44. Which grass is best for soil conservation on bunds?
a) Cynodon dactylon
b) Panicum maximum
c) Vetiveria zizanioides
d) Saccharum munja

Answer: c) Vetiveria zizanioides
Explanation: Vetiver grass has deep, dense root system that binds soil, reduces erosion, and is used for contour hedgerows in soil conservation.

Q45. The practice of growing crops in wide spaced rows to conserve moisture is:
a) Skip row planting
b) Paired row planting
c) Broad bed furrow
d) All of these

Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: All are moisture conservation practices: skip row leaves alternate rows uncropped, paired row groups plants, broad bed furrow stores rainwater.

Q46. The suitable cropping intensity for dryland areas is:
a) <100%
b) 100-150%
c) 150-200%
d) >200%

Answer: a) <100%
Explanation: Drylands with <750 mm rainfall should have <100% cropping intensity, often with fallowing to conserve moisture for one good crop.

Q47. The first step in IPM is:
a) Chemical control
b) Biological control
c) Cultural control
d) Pest surveillance

Answer: d) Pest surveillance
Explanation: Pest surveillance/monitoring is first step to assess pest population, damage levels, and determine if control measures are needed (Economic Threshold Level).

Q48. Which is NOT a cultural control method?
a) Crop rotation
b) Trap crops
c) Pheromone traps
d) Sanitation

Answer: c) Pheromone traps
Explanation: Pheromone traps are mechanical/behavioral control. Cultural controls include rotation, sanitation, trap crops, timing, resistant varieties.

Q49. For every 1°C rise in temperature, wheat yield reduces by approximately:
a) 1-2%
b) 3-5%
c) 6-8%
d) 10-12%

Answer: b) 3-5%
Explanation: Studies show 3-5% wheat yield reduction per 1°C temperature rise, mainly due to reduced grain filling duration and heat stress at flowering.

Q50. The greenhouse gas with highest Global Warming Potential from agriculture is:
a) CO₂
b) CH₄
c) N₂O
d) Water vapor

Answer: c) N₂O
Explanation: N₂O has 298 times GWP of CO₂ over 100 years. CH₄ has 25 times. Though CO₂ is emitted more, N₂O from fertilizers has highest warming potential per molecule.

Q51. The isolation distance for foundation seed production of wheat is:
a) 3 m
b) 10 m
c) 30 m
d) 50 m

Answer: d) 50 m
Explanation: As per seed certification standards, wheat requires 50 m isolation for foundation seed, 30 m for certified seed to prevent cross-pollination.

Q52. Roguing in seed production refers to:
a) Weed removal
b) Off-type plant removal
c) Disease-infected plant removal
d) All of these

Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: Roguing removes undesirable plants: off-types, diseased, insect-damaged, and weeds to maintain genetic purity and seed health.

Q53. Which certification is required for organic exports from India?
a) NPOP
b) PGS
c) FCO
d) Both a and b

Answer: a) NPOP
Explanation: NPOP (National Programme for Organic Production) certification is required for exports. PGS (Participatory Guarantee System) is for domestic market.

Q54. The conversion period for annual crops to organic is:
a) 6 months
b) 1 year
c) 2 years
d) 3 years

Answer: c) 2 years
Explanation: As per organic standards, annual crops require 2-year conversion period (1 year for perennial crops) before being certified organic.

Q55. The implement used for primary tillage in wetland paddy is:
a) MB plough
b) Disc plough
c) Rotavator
d) Puddler

Answer: a) MB plough
Explanation: Moldboard plough is primary tillage implement for wetland paddy. Puddler is for secondary tillage/puddling. Rotavator can do both but costly.

Q56. The formula for field capacity of equipment is:
a) (Area covered × Time) / Efficiency
b) (Area covered × Efficiency) / Time
c) (Time × Efficiency) / Area covered
d) Area covered / (Time × Efficiency)

Answer: b) (Area covered × Efficiency) / Time
Explanation: Field capacity = (W × S × E) / 10 ha/hr, where W=width(m), S=speed(km/hr), E=field efficiency(%). Or simply area covered per unit time.

Q57. Which region of UP has highest cropping intensity?
a) Western UP
b) Central UP
c) Eastern UP
d) Bundelkhand

Answer: a) Western UP
Explanation: Western UP has highest cropping intensity (150-160%) due to better irrigation (canals, tubewells), while Bundelkhand has lowest (<120%).

Q58. The major Rabi oilseed crop of UP is:
a) Groundnut
b) Soybean
c) Mustard
d) Sunflower

Answer: c) Mustard
Explanation: Mustard (Brassica spp.) is major Rabi oilseed in UP, mainly in western districts. Groundnut and soybean are Kharif, sunflower minor.

Q59. The standard error of mean is calculated as:
a) SD/√n
b) SD/n
c) √(SD/n)
d) n/SD

Answer: a) SD/√n
Explanation: SEM = σ/√n, where σ is standard deviation, n is sample size. It measures precision of sample mean estimate of population mean.

Q60. In ANOVA, if F-calculated > F-tabulated, we:
a) Accept null hypothesis
b) Reject null hypothesis
c) Accept alternative hypothesis
d) Both b and c

Answer: d) Both b and c
Explanation: F-calculated > F-tabulated means significant difference between treatments, so reject H₀ (no difference) and accept H₁ (there is difference).

Q61. The element required for chlorophyll synthesis is:
a) Nitrogen
b) Magnesium
c) Iron
d) All of these

Answer: d) All of these
Explanation: N is in chlorophyll molecule (C₅₅H₇₂MgN₄O₅), Mg is central atom, Fe is catalyst in synthesis. Deficiency of any causes chlorosis.

Q62. Hidden hunger refers to:
a) Macronutrient deficiency
b) Micronutrient deficiency
c) Water deficiency
d) Light deficiency

Answer: b) Micronutrient deficiency
Explanation: Hidden hunger is micronutrient deficiency where plants show no clear symptoms but yield is reduced. Common in intensive cropping with NPK only.

Q63. The instrument used to measure irrigation water is:
a) Lysimeter
b) Parshall flume
c) Tensiometer
d) Psychrometer

Answer: b) Parshall flume
Explanation: Parshall flume measures flow rate in open channels. Lysimeter measures ET, tensiometer soil moisture, psychrometer humidity.

Q64. Duty of water is expressed as:
a) ha/cumec
b) cumec/ha
c) mm/day
d) cm/hr

Answer: a) ha/cumec
Explanation: Duty = area irrigated by 1 cumec continuous flow (ha/cumec). Higher duty means more efficient water use.

Q65. The moisture content at which plants wilt permanently is:
a) Field capacity
b) Permanent wilting point
c) Hygroscopic coefficient
d) Saturation point

Answer: b) Permanent wilting point
Explanation: PWP is soil moisture at which plants cannot recover turgor even after rewetting. Typically -15 bar soil moisture tension.

Q66. Bulk density of mineral soils normally ranges from:
a) 1.0-1.2 g/cc
b) 1.2-1.6 g/cc
c) 1.6-2.0 g/cc
d) 2.0-2.5 g/cc

Answer: b) 1.2-1.6 g/cc
Explanation: Mineral soils have BD 1.2-1.6. Lower in organic soils (0.8-1.0), higher in compacted (>1.8). Ideal for root growth is 1.0-1.3.

Q67. Ethephon is used in sugarcane for:
a) Increasing tillering
b) Enhancing flowering
c) Ripening and increasing sugar
d) Controlling weeds

Answer: c) Ripening and increasing sugar
Explanation: Ethephon (Ethrel) promotes sugarcane ripening, increases sucrose content before harvest. Applied 6-8 weeks before harvest.

Q68. Which hormone promotes root initiation in cuttings?
a) Auxin
b) Gibberellin
c) Cytokinin
d) Ethylene

Answer: a) Auxin
Explanation: Auxins (IBA, NAA) promote adventitious root formation in cuttings. Used in horticulture for vegetative propagation.

Q69. The practice of leaving crop residues on soil surface is:
a) Mulching
b) Incorporation
c) Burning
d) Composting

Answer: a) Mulching
Explanation: Surface residue retention (mulching) conserves moisture, reduces erosion, adds organic matter. Burning loses nutrients, incorporation adds OM.

Q70. Happy Seeder is used for:
a) Direct seeding in residue
b) Residue collection
c) Residue burning
d) Residue incorporation

Answer: a) Direct seeding in residue
Explanation: Happy Seeder plants wheat directly into rice residue without burning, enabling conservation agriculture in rice-wheat system.

Q71. The tree species used for alley cropping is:
a) Eucalyptus
b) Poplar
c) Leucaena
d) Teak

Answer: c) Leucaena
Explanation: Leucaena leucocephala is ideal for alley cropping due to fast growth, nitrogen fixation, and lopping ability for green leaf manure.

Q72. In UP, agroforestry is popular with:
a) Poplar + Wheat
b) Eucalyptus + Rice
c) Teak + Sugarcane
d) Bamboo + Mustard

Answer: a) Poplar + Wheat
Explanation: Poplar (Populus deltoides) intercropped with wheat is successful agroforestry system in western UP, giving income from both.

Q73. NDVI in remote sensing stands for:
a) Normalized Difference Vegetation Index
b) National Digital Vegetation Inventory
c) Normalized Digital Vegetation Index
d) National Difference Vegetation Index

Answer: a) Normalized Difference Vegetation Index
Explanation: NDVI = (NIR – Red)/(NIR + Red), ranges -1 to +1. Higher values indicate more green vegetation. Used for crop health monitoring.

Q74. LISS-III sensor is onboard:
a) Landsat
b) SPOT
c) Resourcesat
d) MODIS

Answer: c) Resourcesat
Explanation: LISS-III (Linear Imaging Self Scanner) is on Resourcesat (IRS-P6) with 23.5 m resolution, used for crop acreage and condition assessment.

Q75. The cost that varies with level of production is:
a) Fixed cost
b) Variable cost
c) Total cost
d) Opportunity cost

Answer: b) Variable cost
Explanation: Variable costs (seed, fertilizer, labor) change with production level. Fixed costs (land, machinery) don’t change with output in short run.

Q76. Benefit-Cost Ratio >1 indicates:
a) Profitable enterprise
b) Loss-making enterprise
c) Break-even point
d) Maximum profit point

Answer: a) Profitable enterprise
Explanation: B:C ratio = Benefits/Costs. >1 means benefits exceed costs (profitable). <1 means loss, =1 means break-even.

Q77. The Krishi Vigyan Kendra in UP located at shortest distance from Lucknow is:
a) KVK Barabanki
b) KVK Unnao
c) KVK Raebareli
d) KVK Sitapur

Answer: a) KVK Barabanki
Explanation: KVK Barabanki (at Deva road) is approximately 30 km from Lucknow, closest among options. Each district in UP has one KVK.

Q78. The soil salinity problem in UP is severe in:
a) Terai region
b) Central UP
c) South-western UP
d) Eastern UP

Answer: c) South-western UP
Explanation: South-western districts (Agra, Mathura, Aligarh) have salinity/alkalinity due to poor drainage, high water table, and semi-arid climate.

Q79. The plot size for field experiments with cereals is usually:
a) 1-2 m²
b) 10-20 m²
c) 50-100 m²
d) 200-500 m²

Answer: b) 10-20 m²
Explanation: Plot size for cereal experiments is typically 4×5=20 m² or 5×4=20 m². Too small increases error, too large reduces replications.

Q80. The protective irrigation given to rabi crops in dry spells is called:
a) Life-saving irrigation
b) Productive irrigation
c) Pre-sowing irrigation
d) Post-harvest irrigation

Answer: a) Life-saving irrigation
Explanation: Life-saving irrigation is limited water applied during critical growth stages to save crop from drought stress, common in rainfed areas.

Q81. Cation Exchange Capacity of soil is expressed as:
a) meq/100g soil
b) mg/kg soil
c) cmol/kg soil
d) Both a and c

Answer: d) Both a and c
Explanation: CEC is expressed as milliequivalents per 100g soil (meq/100g) or centimoles of charge per kg soil (cmol(+)/kg). 1 meq/100g = 1 cmol(+)/kg.

Q82. The pH range suitable for most crops is:
a) 4.0-5.0
b) 5.5-7.5
c) 8.0-9.0
d) 9.0-10.0

Answer: b) 5.5-7.5
Explanation: Most crops grow best in slightly acidic to neutral pH (5.5-7.5). Acid soils (<5.5) need liming, alkaline soils (>7.5) need amendments.

Q83. The phenomenon where high P application induces Zn deficiency is:
a) Antagonism
b) Synergism
c) Immobilization
d) Fixation

Answer: a) Antagonism
Explanation: P-Zn antagonism: High P reduces Zn availability by forming insoluble Zn-phosphate complexes or affecting root Zn uptake.

Q84. The fertilizer which is partially acid forming:
a) Urea
b) DAP
c) Ammonium sulfate
d) Potassium chloride

Answer: b) DAP
Explanation: DAP (Diammonium phosphate) is partially acid forming. Urea and ammonium sulfate are acid forming, KCl is neutral.

Q85. Residual Sodium Carbonate (RSC) is calculated as:
a) (CO₃²⁻ + HCO₃⁻) – (Ca²⁺ + Mg²⁺)
b) (Na⁺ + K⁺) – (Cl⁻ + SO₄²⁻)
c) (Ca²⁺ + Mg²⁺) – (CO₃²⁻ + HCO₃⁻)
d) (Cl⁻ + SO₄²⁻) – (Na⁺ + K⁺)

Answer: a) (CO₃²⁻ + HCO₃⁻) – (Ca²⁺ + Mg²⁺)
Explanation: RSC (meq/L) = (CO₃²⁻ + HCO₃⁻) – (Ca²⁺ + Mg²⁺). RSC > 2.5 makes water unsuitable for irrigation due to sodicity hazard.

Q86. The EC of irrigation water suitable for most crops is:
a) <0.25 dS/m
b) 0.25-0.75 dS/m
c) 0.75-2.25 dS/m
d) >2.25 dS/m

Answer: c) 0.75-2.25 dS/m
Explanation: EC 0.75-2.25 dS/m is permissible for irrigation. <0.75 is excellent, 2.25-3.0 is questionable, >3.0 is unsuitable without management.

Q87. The light compensation point is where:
a) Photosynthesis = Respiration
b) Photosynthesis > Respiration
c) Photosynthesis < Respiration
d) Photosynthesis stops

Answer: a) Photosynthesis = Respiration
Explanation: Light compensation point is light intensity where photosynthesis equals respiration, resulting in zero net CO₂ exchange.

Q88. The photosynthetic pathway where initial CO₂ fixation produces 4-carbon acids:
a) C3 pathway
b) C4 pathway
c) CAM pathway
d) All of above

Answer: b) C4 pathway
Explanation: C4 plants fix CO₂ into 4-carbon acids (oxaloacetate, malate) in mesophyll cells, then transfer to bundle sheath for Calvin cycle.

Q89. The instrument used to measure sunshine duration is:
a) Anemometer
b) Campbell-Stokes recorder
c) Hygrometer
d) Barometer

Answer: b) Campbell-Stokes recorder
Explanation: Campbell-Stokes recorder measures sunshine hours using glass sphere that burns trace on card. Anemometer measures wind speed, hygrometer humidity.

Q90. Heat units accumulated by crop are measured as:
a) Growing degree days
b) Photo-thermal units
c) Heat use efficiency
d) Thermal time

Answer: a) Growing degree days
Explanation: GDD = Σ[(Tmax+Tmin)/2 – Tbase]. Tbase varies by crop: wheat 0°C, rice 10°C, maize 10°C. Used to predict crop phenology.

Q91. The phenomenon where seeds fail to germinate under favorable conditions is:
a) Dormancy
b) Quiescence
c) Vivipary
d) Parthenocarpy

Answer: a) Dormancy
Explanation: Dormancy prevents germination under favorable conditions until specific requirements (light, chilling, after-ripening) are met. Quiescence is due to unfavorable conditions.

Q92. The moisture content for safe storage of cereal seeds is:
a) 5-6%
b) 8-10%
c) 12-14%
d) 16-18%

Answer: c) 12-14%
Explanation: Cereal seeds stored safely at 12-14% moisture. Below 8% damages seeds, above 14% promotes fungal growth and respiration.

Q93. The vertical interval between contours for bench terracing is calculated as:
a) VI = (S × H)/100
b) VI = 100H/S
c) VI = S + H
d) VI = S × H

Answer: a) VI = (S × H)/100
Explanation: VI = (S × H)/100 where S=slope %, H=height of riser. HI = 100H/S gives horizontal interval. Used in terrace design.

Q94. The grass waterway velocity should not exceed:
a) 0.5 m/s
b) 1.0 m/s
c) 1.5 m/s
d) 2.0 m/s

Answer: c) 1.5 m/s
Explanation: Grass waterways should have velocity <1.5 m/s to prevent erosion. For bare soil, permissible velocity is 0.5-0.9 m/s depending on soil type.

Q95. Jeevamrut is prepared from:
a) Cow dung + urine + jaggery + pulse flour + soil
b) Vermicompost + neem cake + rock phosphate
c) Farmyard manure + ash + lime
d) Green manure + biogas slurry

Answer: a) Cow dung + urine + jaggery + pulse flour + soil
Explanation: Jeevamrut: 10 kg dung, 10 L urine, 2 kg jaggery, 2 kg pulse flour, handful soil in 200 L water. Fermented 7 days, used as liquid manure.

Q96. The recommended dose of vermicompost for cereals is:
a) 1-2 t/ha
b) 2-3 t/ha
c) 5-6 t/ha
d) 10-12 t/ha

Answer: c) 5-6 t/ha
Explanation: Vermicompost recommended at 5-6 t/ha for cereals, replacing 25-30% of NPK. Higher doses (10-15 t/ha) for vegetables.

Q97. The technology that uses sensors to apply variable fertilizer rates is:
a) VRT
b) GIS
c) GPS
d) RS

Answer: a) VRT
Explanation: Variable Rate Technology uses soil/crop sensors, GPS, and controllers to apply inputs at variable rates based on spatial variability.

Q98. NDRE in remote sensing is more sensitive to:
a) Chlorophyll content
b) Leaf area index
c) Nitrogen content
d) All of above

Answer: c) Nitrogen content
Explanation: NDRE (Normalized Difference Red Edge) uses red-edge band (700-750 nm) sensitive to chlorophyll and nitrogen, better than NDVI for N status.

Q99. IFS stands for:
a) Integrated Farming System
b) Intensive Farming System
c) Indian Farming System
d) Innovative Farming System

Answer: a) Integrated Farming System
Explanation: IFS integrates crops, livestock, fishery, poultry, etc. for recycling resources, increasing income, and sustainability.

Q100. The ratio recommended in crop: dairy: poultry components in IFS is:
a) 40:30:30
b) 50:30:20
c) 60:20:20
d) 70:20:10

Answer: b) 50:30:20
Explanation: In IFS models, ideal allocation: 50% crop, 30% dairy, 20% poultry for 1 ha farm. Provides regular income and nutrient cycling.