ICAR JRF Plant Science Practice Series Memory Based 2023 Shift 1st  (Module 1) (81 – 120 MCQ) 

 

 

Question 81

Match List-I with List-II (Type of chlorophyll and absorption peak):

List-I (Chlorophyll type)	List-II (Absorption peak approx.)
(A) Chlorophyll a	(I) 450 nm and 650 nm
(B) Chlorophyll b	(II) 430 nm and 660 nm
(C) Chlorophyll c	(III) 447 nm and 628 nm
(D) Bacteriochlorophyll a	(IV) 830 nm

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 1

 

Question 82

Statement (I): Rubisco is the most abundant protein on Earth.
Statement (II): Rubisco catalyzes both carboxylation and oxygenation reactions.

Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 83

Which of the following is a C4 plant?

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Maize
4. Soybean

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 3

 

 

Question 84

Match List-I with List-II (Type of plastid and function):

List-I (Plastid type)	List-II (Function)
(A) Chloroplast	(I) Storage of starch
(B) Chromoplast	(II) Photosynthesis
(C) Leucoplast	(III) Synthesis and storage of carotenoids
(D) Gerontoplast	(IV) Chloroplast degradation during senescence

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 85

Statement (I): Kranz anatomy is a characteristic feature of C4 plants.
Statement (II): Kranz anatomy involves bundle sheath cells arranged in a ring around vascular bundles.

Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 86

Which of the following is a CAM plant?

1. Sugarcane
2. Pineapple
3. Maize
4. Sorghum

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 2

 

 

Question 87

Match List-I with List-II (Photosynthetic pigment and color):

List-I (Pigment)	List-II (Color)
(A) Chlorophyll a	(I) Yellow-orange
(B) Chlorophyll b	(II) Blue-green
(C) Carotene	(III) Yellow-green
(D) Xanthophyll	(IV) Yellow

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 88

Statement (I): Photosystem II (PSII) has a reaction center with absorption peak at 680 nm (P680).
Statement (II): PSII is primarily responsible for the photolysis of water and oxygen evolution.

Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

 

Question 89

Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis?

1. ATP
2. NADPH
3. Oxygen
4. Glucose

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 4

 

 

Question 90

The procedure for taking field count in broadly spaced crops such as cotton, chilies, castor, etc. includes the below-mentioned activities. Choose the most appropriate group of activities:
(A) Enter the seed plot from a randomly selected site.
(B) Inspect 1000 plants in any row.
(C) Move across the seed plot covering all portions and take the requisite number of counts on the basis of the area of the seed plot.
(D) Record in the inspection report the number of contaminants observed in each count.
Options:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A), (B) and (D) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Field inspection in seed production requires:
• Random entry into the field (A)
• Systematic coverage of the entire field (C)
• Recording contaminants for each count (D)
  However, inspecting exactly 1000 plants per row (B) is not a standard requirement for all crops, making it incorrect.

 

 

Question 91

While submitting an application for registration of a crop variety in the PPV&FR Authority, the application must contain the following information:
(A) Complete passport data of the parental lines from which the variety has been derived.
(B) Geographical location in India from where the genetic material was taken.
(C) Geographical location in India where the variety should not be grown.
(D) Brief description of the variety including its DUS characteristics.
Options:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A), (B) and (D) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• For PPV&FR registration, the application must include:
• Passport data of parental lines (A)
• Source/geographical origin of genetic material (B)
• Detailed description including DUS traits (D)
  Information about where the variety should not be grown (C) is not required.

 

 

Question 92

Match List-I with List-II (Crop and Sample size for grow-out test):

List-I	List-II
(A) Groundnut	(I) 250 tubers
(B) Paddy	(II) 1000 g
(C) Jute	(III) 500 g
(D) Sweet potato	(IV) 100 g

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
3. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Grow-out test sample sizes vary by crop based on seed size and propagation method.
• Groundnut (large seeds) → measured in grams (1000 g)
• Paddy (small seeds) → smaller quantity (500 g)
• Jute (very small seeds) → minimal quantity (100 g)
• Sweet potato (vegetatively propagated) → counted as tubers (250)
  This ensures accurate assessment of genetic purity.

 

 

Question 93

Match List-I with List-II (Type of germination/birth and Organisms):

List-I	List-II
(A) Epigeal germination	(I) Mangrove plant
(B) Viviparous germination	(II) Pea
(C) Oviparous germination (birth)	(III) Soybean
(D) Hypogeal germination	(IV) Birds

Options:

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 4

• Explanation:
• Epigeal germination → cotyledons come above soil (e.g., soybean)
• Vivipary → seed germinates while attached to parent plant (e.g., mangroves)
• Oviparous → egg-laying organisms (e.g., birds)
• Hypogeal germination → cotyledons remain below soil (e.g., pea)
  These represent different reproductive and germination strategies.

 

 

Question 94

Match List-I with List-II (Type of fruit and example):

List-I (Fruit type)	List-II (Example)
(A) Berry	(I) Mango
(B) Drupe	(II) Tomato
(C) Legume	(III) Pea
(D) Pome	(IV) Apple

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 95

Statement (I): Aggregate fruits develop from a single flower with multiple separate carpels.
Statement (II): Strawberry is an example of an aggregate fruit.

Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 96

Which of the following is a multiple fruit?

1. Apple
2. Pineapple
3. Peach
4. Grape

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 2

 

 

Question 97

Match List-I with List-II (Type of inflorescence and example):

List-I (Inflorescence type)	List-II (Example)
(A) Raceme	(I) Sunflower
(B) Spike	(II) Mustard
(C) Capitulum (Head)	(III) Wheat
(D) Cymose	(IV) Jasmine

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 98

The viability of seeds is tested through a chemical called 2,3,5-triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TZ). The steps of the TZ test in most appropriate order:
(A) Dissection of the seeds to expose the embryo.
(B) Placing the seeds in a 1.0% or 0.1% solution of 2,3,5-triphenyl tetrazolium chloride.
(C) Soak the seeds in water overnight.
(D) Examination of the treated seeds for coloration of the embryo.
Options:

1. (C), (B), (A), (D)
2. (D), (B), (C), (A)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (A), (B), (D)

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

TZ test follows a logical sequence:

1. Soaking seeds to activate tissues
2. Dissection to expose embryo
3. Staining with tetrazolium solution
4. Observation of color change (red = viable tissue)
   The red color indicates active respiration and living cells.

 

 

Question 99

Statement (I): Baby corn represents small and immature maize plants.
Statement (II): The size, texture, and taste are the main differences between baby corn and normal full-size corn.
Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation: Baby corn is not the whole plant but the immature ear (cob) of maize harvested early, before fertilization. It differs from normal corn in size, tenderness, sweetness, and texture, making it suitable for direct consumption.

 

 

Question 100

Assertion (A): To recognize and protect the rights of farmers and breeders and to stimulate investment in R&D for new plant varieties, Govt. of India enacted the PPV&FR Act in 2001.
Reason (R): The protection of rights of farmers and plant breeders will facilitate the growth of the seed industry which will ensure availability of high-quality seeds to farmers.
Options:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation: The PPV&FR Act (2001) was enacted to protect intellectual property rights of farmers and breeders and to promote innovation. By ensuring rights and incentives, it encourages investment in breeding programs, leading to availability of improved, high-quality seeds—thus the reason correctly explains the assertion.

 

 

Question 101

Statement (I): Like any other crop varieties, the essentially derived varieties (EDVs) can also be registered and protected with the PPV&FR Authority, Govt. of India.
Statement (II): The rights of a breeder as granted by the PPV&FR Act (2001) shall also be applicable to the breeder of an EDV.
Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
3. Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
4. Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation: Essentially Derived Varieties (EDVs) are derived from an existing variety but retain its essential characteristics. They can be registered and protected, and breeders of EDVs also enjoy legal rights under PPV&FR Act, ensuring recognition and protection of innovation.

 

 

Question 102

Which of the following is NOT a type of millet?

1. Sorghum
2. Foxtail millet
3. Finger millet
4. Barley

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation: Millets include crops like sorghum, foxtail millet, and finger millet, which are small-seeded cereals adapted to dry regions. Barley is a cereal crop but not classified as a millet, hence it is the correct answer.

 

 

Question 103

Statement (I): Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) are known for their participatory approach to agricultural extension services.
Statement (II): KVKs involve farmers in planning, implementation, and evaluation of extension activities to ensure they are tailored to local needs.
Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
3. Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
4. Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation: Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) follow a participatory extension approach, where farmers are actively involved in planning, execution, and evaluation of agricultural programs. This ensures that technologies are location-specific, need-based, and practical, thereby improving adoption and effectiveness.

 

 

Question 104

Match List-I with List-II (International Regulation and Year of enforcement):

List-I	List-II
(A) CBD	(I) 2003
(B) ITPGRFA	(II) 2004
(C) Cartagena Protocol	(III) 2014
(D) Nagoya Protocol	(IV) 1993

Options:

1. A-(IV), B-(III), C-(I), D-(II)
2. A-(I), B-(II), C-(III), D-(IV)
3. A-(IV), B-(II), C-(I), D-(III)
4. A-(III), B-(II), C-(I), D-(IV)

Correct Answer: 3

• CBD (Convention on Biological Diversity) → 1993
• ITPGRFA → 2004
• Cartagena Protocol → 2003
• Nagoya Protocol → 2014
• These international agreements regulate biodiversity conservation, biosafety, genetic resource sharing, and access-benefit sharing.

 

 

Question 105

Match List-I with List-II (Type of plant tissue and function):

List-I (Tissue type)	List-II (Function)
(A) Parenchyma	(I) Mechanical strength and support
(B) Collenchyma	(II) Photosynthesis, storage, secretion
(C) Sclerenchyma	(III) Flexibility and support in young stems
(D) Xylem	(IV) Conduction of water and minerals

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 106

Statement (I): Apical meristems are responsible for primary growth in plants.
Statement (II): Lateral meristems (vascular cambium and cork cambium) are responsible for secondary growth.

Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 107

Which of the following is a complex permanent tissue in plants?

1. Parenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Xylem

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 4

 

 

Question 108

Match List-I with List-II (Type of stomata and plant group):

List-I (Stomata type)	List-II (Plant group)
(A) Anomocytic	(I) Grasses
(B) Paracytic	(II) Dicots (e.g., Solanaceae)
(C) Diacytic	(III) Dicots (e.g., Caryophyllaceae)
(D) Gramineous	(IV) Many dicots (e.g., Ranunculaceae)

Options:

1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 109

What is the aim of the ‘Vibrant Village Program’ launched by the Indian government in April 2023?

1. To develop Northern states of India
2. To promote urbanization in rural areas
3. To provide employment opportunities in urban areas
4. To provide financial assistance to small businesses in rural areas

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:The Vibrant Village Programme is focused on the holistic development of border villages, especially in the northern Himalayan region. It aims to improve infrastructure (roads, housing, electricity), connectivity, livelihood opportunities, tourism, and security. By doing so, it helps prevent migration from border areas and strengthens national security by ensuring population presence in strategically important regions.

 

 

Question 110

Assertion (A): Genetic recombination can result in the separation of linked genes.
Reason (R): Genetic recombination can break the linkage between two genes that are located close together on a chromosome.
Options:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation: Genetic recombination occurs during meiosis (prophase I) through crossing over between homologous chromosomes. This process can separate genes that are physically linked on the same chromosome, especially if they are far apart. As a result, new combinations of alleles are formed, increasing genetic variability, and the reason correctly explains how linkage is broken.

 

 

Question 111

Which one of the following is NOT incorrect with respect to transpiration in plants?

1. Transpiration is an important process for regulating temperature by cooling leaves through loss of water vapor.
2. Transpiration rates are influenced by humidity, temperature, and wind speed.
3. Plants can reduce transpiration rates by closing stomata in response to drought.
4. Transpiration occurs only during the day when stomata are open to allow gas exchange.

Correct Answer: 4 

Explanation: Transpiration is the loss of water vapor mainly through stomata, which are usually open during the day. It helps in cooling the plant, maintaining water balance, and aiding nutrient transport. However, transpiration is not strictly limited to daytime, as some water loss can occur at night via cuticular transpiration or partially open stomata. Therefore, option 4 is incorrect, and the answer key likely contains an error.

 

 

Question 112

What is the process for obtaining regulatory approval to use CRISPR-Cas9 technology in agriculture in India?

1. Submitting an application to the Ministry of Agriculture
2. Obtaining approval from the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
3. Seeking approval from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
4. As of now, no approval is required for the use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology in agriculture in India

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation: In India, the use of gene-editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9 is regulated by the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under the Ministry of Environment. GEAC evaluates biosafety, environmental impact, and risk assessment before approving field trials or commercial use of genetically modified or edited crops.

 

 

Question 113

Arrange the following commercial crops in ascending order with respect to their ploidy level:
(A) Wheat (B) Cotton (C) Tomato (D) Banana
Options:

1. (D), (C), (A), (B)
2. (C), (D), (A), (B)
3. (C), (D), (B), (A)
4. (D), (C), (B), (A)

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Tomato → diploid (2n)
• Banana → triploid (3n)
• Cotton → tetraploid (4n)
• Wheat → hexaploid (6n)
  Thus, ascending order of ploidy is tomato → banana → cotton → wheat.

 

 

Question 114

Which of the following amino acid is the first one to be included in almost all protein synthesis processes?

1. Glycine
2. Methionine
3. Thymine
4. Proline

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation: Protein synthesis begins at the start codon (AUG), which codes for methionine in eukaryotes. This amino acid initiates translation and sets the reading frame for the entire polypeptide.

 

 

Question 115

Statement (I): The Calvin cycle, also known as the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis, occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.
Statement (II): The products of photosynthesis are carbon dioxide and water only.
Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are false.
3. Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false.
4. Statement (I) is false but Statement (II) is true.

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation: The Calvin cycle occurs in the stroma of chloroplasts and uses ATP and NADPH to fix carbon dioxide into sugars. However, the final products of photosynthesis are glucose and oxygen, not carbon dioxide and water, making Statement II incorrect.

 

 

Question 116

Which of the following is the correct sequence of cell cycle phases?

1. G1 → S → G2 → M
2. G1 → G2 → S → M
3. S → G1 → G2 → M
4. M → G1 → S → G2

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 1

 

 

Question 117

Match List-I with List-II (Type of cell division and characteristic):

List-I (Division type)	List-II (Characteristic)
(A) Mitosis	(I) Reduces chromosome number by half
(B) Meiosis	(II) Produces two identical daughter cells
(C) Amitosis	(III) Direct division without spindle formation
(D) Cytokinesis	(IV) Division of cytoplasm

Options:

1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

Correct Answer: 1

• Explanation:
• Mitosis produces two genetically identical daughter cells, maintaining chromosome number (2n → 2n).
• Meiosis is a reduction division, decreasing chromosome number by half (2n → n) to form gametes.
• Amitosis is a direct cell division without spindle formation, seen in some unicellular organisms.
• Cytokinesis is the division of cytoplasm, which follows nuclear division to form separate daughter cells.

 

 

Question 118

Statement (I): Crossing over occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I of meiosis.
Statement (II): Crossing over leads to genetic recombination between homologous chromosomes.

Options:

1. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are correct.
2. Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are incorrect.
3. Statement (I) is correct but Statement (II) is incorrect.
4. Statement (I) is incorrect but Statement (II) is correct.

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation: Crossing over occurs during the pachytene stage of prophase I, where homologous chromosomes are closely paired (synapsis). During this stage, exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids takes place, leading to genetic recombination, which increases variation in offspring.

 

 

Question 119

Which of the following is NOT a stage of mitosis?

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Interphase
4. Telophase

Options:

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation: Interphase is not a stage of mitosis; it is the preparatory phase of the cell cycle where DNA replication (S phase), cell growth (G₁), and preparation for division (G₂) occur. Mitosis includes prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase only.

 

 

Question 120

Match List-I with List-II (Phase of mitosis and event):

List-I (Phase)	List-II (Event)
(A) Prophase	(I) Chromosomes align at equatorial plate
(B) Metaphase	(II) Sister chromatids separate and move to poles
(C) Anaphase	(III) Nuclear envelope reforms, cytokinesis begins
(D) Telophase	(IV) Chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope disintegrates

Options:

1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

Correct Answer: 1

• Explanation:
• Prophase → chromosomes condense and nuclear envelope breaks down
• Metaphase → chromosomes align at the equatorial plate
• Anaphase → sister chromatids separate and move to opposite poles
• Telophase → nuclear envelope reforms and cytokinesis begins
• These stages ensure accurate distribution of genetic material into daughter cells.