Question 40

RNA and protein synthesis is stimulated in the stage of:

1. Pre-germination
2. Germination
3. Post-germination
4. Both, pre and post-germination

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Germination stage– RNA and protein synthesis are stimulated because:
  • mRNA is transcribed from stored DNA.
  • New enzymes (e.g., α-amylase) are synthesized for mobilization of stored food.
  • Cell division and elongation begin.
• Pre-germination– Metabolic activity is minimal (dry seed).
• Post-germination– Continued growth, but the major activation occurs at germination.

 

 

Question 41

Biosuper is a mixture of:

1. Sulphur + Sulphur oxidizing bacteria + Rock phosphate
2. Sulphur oxidizing bacteria + Rock phosphate
3. Sulphur + Sulphur oxidizing bacteria
4. Sulphur + Rock phosphate

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Biosuper– A biofertilizer formulation that contains a mixture of sulphur (S) , sulphur-oxidizing bacteria (e.g., Thiobacillus), and rock phosphate.
  • Sulphur-oxidizing bacteria oxidize sulphur to sulphuric acid, which solubilizes rock phosphate, making phosphorus available to plants.
  • It is an eco-friendly alternative to chemical phosphate fertilizers.

 

 

Question 42

Which of the following crops is an indeterminate pulse crop? (Repeat of Q20)

1. Blackgram
2. Redgram
3. Greengram
4. Chickpea

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Red gram (Pigeon pea)– Indeterminate growth habit; continues flowering over a long period.

 

 

Question 43

Serious pest of chickpea that causes damage up to 75 per cent reduction in yield is: (Repeat of Q21)

1. Prodenia
2. Thrips
3. Gram pod borer
4. Aphids

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Gram pod borer (Helicoverpa armigera)– Most destructive pest of chickpea, causing up to 75% yield loss.

 

 

Question 44

The most critical stage in wheat for irrigation is: (Repeat of Q22)

1. Crown root initiation stage
2. Tillering stage
3. Maturity stage
4. Seedling stage

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• CRI (Crown Root Initiation)– Most critical stage; water stress at this stage severely reduces yield.

 

 

Question 45

Alphonso is an important variety of: (Repeat of Q23)

1. Guava
2. Potato
3. Mango
4. Grapes

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Alphonso– Premium mango variety from Maharashtra.

 

 

Question 46

Interveinal chlorosis is caused due to the deficiency of: (Repeat of Q24)

1. Zinc
2. Magnesium
3. Copper
4. Iron

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Magnesium deficiency– Interveinal chlorosis in older leaves (Mg is mobile).

 

 

Question 47

Phosphorus is essential for: (Repeat of Q25)

1. Root development
2. Flowering
3. Branching
4. Quality improvement

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Phosphorus– Promotes early and vigorous root development.

 

 

Question 48

The nutrient responsible for drought resistance in crops is:

1. Nitrogen
2. Magnesium
3. Potassium
4. Phosphorus

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Potassium (K)– Regulates stomatal closure and maintains turgor under drought stress.

 

 

Question 49

Rural development programmes in a district are operated by: (Repeat of Q27)

1. JDA
2. DDA
3. DRDA
4. DFO

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation: DRDA (District Rural Development Agency)– Implements rural development schemes at district level.

 

 

Question 51

In chickpea, excess irrigation: (Repeat of Q29)

1. Increases yield
2. Decreases yield
3. Improves quality
4. No effect

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation: Chickpeais sensitive to waterlogging; excess irrigation causes root rot and reduced yield.

 

 

Question 52

Process of conversion of inorganic unavailable phosphate to available phosphate by microorganisms is termed as:

1. Phosphate mobilization
2. Phosphate solubilization
3. Phosphate mineralization
4. Phosphate fixation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Phosphate solubilization– The process by which microorganisms (e.g., Bacillus, Pseudomonas, Aspergillus, Penicillium) convert insoluble inorganic phosphates (e.g., rock phosphate, tricalcium phosphate) into soluble forms (H₂PO₄⁻, HPO₄²⁻) that plants can absorb.
  • Mechanisms: Production of organic acids (citric, gluconic, oxalic acids), chelation, and acidification.
• Phosphate mobilization– Broader term including solubilization and mineralization.
• Phosphate mineralization– Conversion of organic phosphorus to inorganic form.
• Phosphate fixation– Conversion of soluble P to insoluble form (opposite of solubilization).

 

 

Question 53

The seed structure that develops from sexual fusion of the polar nuclei of the ovule and the second male sperm cell is called as:

1. Embryo
2. Radicle
3. Endosperm
4. Plumule

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Endosperm– In angiosperms, formed by double fertilization:
  • One sperm fuses with the egg to form the zygote (embryo).
  • The second sperm fuses with two polar nuclei(central cell) to form the triploid (3n) endosperm.
• Radicle– Part of the embryo (develops into root).
• Plumule– Part of the embryo (develops into shoot).

 

 

Question 54

The outermost wall of the ovary is called as:

1. Mesocarp
2. Metacarp
3. Epicarp
4. Pericarp

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• The fruit wall (pericarp) is divided into three layers:
  • Epicarp (Exocarp)– Outermost layer of the ovary wall (skin).
  • Mesocarp– Middle layer (fleshy in fruits like mango, peach).
  • Endocarp– Innermost layer (hard stone in drupes, papery in citrus).
• Pericarp– The entire fruit wall (epicarp + mesocarp + endocarp).

 

 

Question 55

The end products of photosynthesis are:

1. O₂ and hexose sugar
2. O₂ and protein
3. CO₂ and carbohydrate
4. None of these

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• The overall equation of photosynthesis:
  • 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ (glucose) + 6O₂
• End products:Oxygen (O₂) and hexose sugar (glucose, which is then converted to sucrose, starch, etc.).
• Protein, CO₂– Not end products.

 

 

Question 56

Which of the following enzymes is not involved in protein synthesis?

1. Methionyl transferase
2. Deformylase
3. Restriction endonuclease
4. Aminopeptidase

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Restriction endonuclease– Involved in DNA cleavage at specific sequences (used in genetic engineering, bacterial defense). Not involved in protein synthesis.
• Methionyl transferase– Involved in attaching methionine to initiator tRNA (involved in protein synthesis).
• Deformylase– Removes formyl group from the initiator methionine in prokaryotic protein synthesis.
• Aminopeptidase– Removes amino acids from the N-terminus of proteins (protein processing).

 

 

Question 57

Centromere is included in which of the following types of inversion?

1. Paracentric
2. Pericentric
3. Holocentric
4. Epicentric

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Pericentric inversion– The inverted chromosome segment includes the centromere.
• Paracentric inversion– The inverted segment does not include the centromere (occurs in one arm only).
• Holocentric– Chromosomes with diffuse centromeres (not applicable to inversion types).
• Epicentric– Not a standard term.

 

 

Question 58

A gene moves from one linkage group to another through:

1. Crossing over
2. Replication
3. Translocation
4. Transversion

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Translocation– A chromosomal rearrangement where a segment of one chromosome is transferred to a non-homologous chromosome. This can cause a gene to move from one linkage group (chromosome) to another.
• Crossing over– Exchange between homologous chromosomes (same linkage group).
• Replication– DNA duplication (does not change linkage group).
• Transversion– A type of point mutation (purine ↔ pyrimidine).

 

Question 59

Doubled haploids cannot be created in which of the following crops:

1. Rice
2. Cotton
3. Groundnut
4. Wheat

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Doubled haploid (DH) technology– Production of homozygous lines by chromosome doubling of haploid plants (from anther culture, microspore culture, or intergeneric crosses like wheat × maize).
• Rice, wheat, cotton– Doubled haploids can be produced.
• Groundnut (peanut)– Doubled haploid production is difficult and not established due to:
  • Low success rate in anther culture.
  • Regeneration problems.

 

 

Question 60

Bast fibre is not obtained from which of the following crops:

1. Flax
2. Jute
3. Sunhemp
4. Cotton

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• Bast fibres– Fibres obtained from the phloem (stem) of plants.
  • Flax– Linseed (stem fibre for linen).
  • Jute– Stem fibre (jute fabric, gunny bags).
  • Sunhemp– Stem fibre (ropes, twine).
• Cotton– Surface fibre (seed hair/trichome), not a bast fibre.
• Other bast fibres:Hemp, ramie, kenaf.

 

 

Question 61

In higher plants, water is lost from aerial parts of plants mainly through:

1. Cuticular transpiration
2. Stomatal transpiration
3. Lenticular transpiration
4. Guttation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Stomatal transpiration– Accounts for 80–90% of total water loss in plants. Water vapor diffuses through stomata.
• Cuticular transpiration– Through the cuticle (only 5–10%).
• Lenticular transpiration– Through lenticels (minor, in woody stems).
• Guttation– Loss of liquid water (not vapor) through hydathodes (occurs at night/morning).

 

Question 62

Mentor pollen is used to overcome the:

1. Stylar barrier of distant crosses
2. Stigmatic barrier of distant crosses
3. Ovarian barrier of distant crosses
4. Embryonal barrier of distant crosses

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Mentor pollen– Technique to overcome stylar barriers (incompatibility) in distant crosses.
  • Mixture of irradiated (non-functional) mentor pollen and normal foreign pollen is applied.
  • Mentor pollen induces stigmatic/stylar changes, allowing foreign pollen tube growth.
• Stigmatic barrier– More common in sporophytic incompatibility (e.g., Brassica).

 

 

Question 63

A chromosome with two identical arms and identical genes is called as:

1. Autosome
2. Normal chromosome
3. Isochromosome
4. Paring chromosome

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Isochromosome– A chromosome with two identical arms (mirror images) produced by transverse breakage through the centromere.
  • Both arms are genetically identical.
• Autosome– Any non-sex chromosome.
• Normal chromosome– Has two different arms (short p arm, long q arm).

 

 

Question 64

Replacement of a purine by another purine is called as:

1. Transversion
2. Transition
3. Translocation
4. Inversion

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Transition– A point mutation where a purine is replaced by another purine (A ↔ G) or a pyrimidine by another pyrimidine (C ↔ T).
• Transversion– Purine ↔ pyrimidine (A ↔ T, A ↔ C, G ↔ T, G ↔ C).
• Translocation, inversion– Chromosomal rearrangements.

 

 

Question 65

Biogas is a mixture of:

1. N₂, CO₂, and H₂
2. CH₄, CO₂, and H₂
3. CH₄, CO₂, and H₂S
4. CH₄, CO₂, and O₂

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Biogas– Composed primarily of:
  • Methane (CH₄)– 50–70%
  • Carbon dioxide (CO₂)– 30–50%
  • Hydrogen sulphide (H₂S)– trace amounts
  • Ammonia (NH₃)– trace
• H₂Sgives biogas a characteristic rotten egg smell.

 

 

Question 66

The enzyme responsible for conversion of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia is called as:

1. Nitrate reductase
2. Nitrogenase
3. Assimilatory nitrate reductase
4. Dissimilatory nitrate reductase

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Nitrogenase– The enzyme complex that converts atmospheric N₂ to NH₃ (biological nitrogen fixation).
  • Found in nitrogen-fixing bacteria (e.g., Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Clostridium, cyanobacteria).
  • Requires ATP and anaerobic conditions (oxygen-sensitive).
• Nitrate reductase– Converts nitrate (NO₃⁻) to nitrite (NO₂⁻).

 

 

Question 67

Which of the following predominates during terminal phase of composting?

1. Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Actinobacteria
4. Thermophilic bacteria

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Composting phases:
  • Mesophilic phase (initial)– Bacteria, fungi.
  • Thermophilic phase (high temperature)– Thermophilic bacteria.
  • Cooling/maturation phase (terminal)– Actinobacteria (and fungi) predominate, degrading complex materials like cellulose and lignin.
• Actinobacteria– Filamentous bacteria that give mature compost its earthy smell.

 

 

Question 68

The scientist who identified bacteria associated with leguminous root nodules as rhizobia was:

1. Wilfarth
2. Hellriegel
3. Beijerinck
4. Frank

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• Albert Bernhard Frank (1889)– German botanist who named the root nodule bacteria “Rhizobium” (first to identify them).
• Hellriegel and Wilfarth– Proved that nitrogen fixation is carried out by root nodule bacteria.
• Beijerinck– Isolated Rhizobium in pure culture.

 

 

Question 69

If some individuals in segregating generations exceed the parental range in one or more characters, the phenomenon is called as:

1. Dominant segregation
2. Recessive segregation
3. Transgressive segregation
4. Introgressive segregation

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Transgressive segregation– When offspring in segregating populations exceed both parents in a trait (positive transgression) or fall below both parents (negative transgression).
  • Caused by complementary gene action (favorable alleles from both parents).
  • Important in breeding for yield and stress tolerance.
• Introgressive segregation– Gene flow from one species to another through backcrossing.

 

 

Question 70

Examples for secondary introduction are:

1. Sonora 64 and Sonalika
2. Sonora 64 and Lerma Rojo
3. Sonora 64 and Kalyan Sona
4. Kalyan Sona and Sonalika

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Secondary introduction– Varieties introduced from one country that were originally developed from materials from another country.
• Sonora 64– A semi-dwarf wheat variety introduced from CIMMYT (Mexico) into India.
• Sonalika– Another wheat variety introduced from CIMMYT (originally from Mexico).
• Lerma Rojo, Kalyan Sona– Also introduced but not paired correctly.

 

 

Question 71

Vinegar is:

1. 4% acetic acid
2. 8% acetic acid
3. 10% acetic acid
4. 1% acetic acid

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Vinegar– A solution of acetic acid (4–8%) produced by fermentation of ethanol by acetic acid bacteria (Acetobacter aceti).
  • Table vinegar– Contains about 4% acetic acid.
  • Concentrated vinegar– Up to 8% (e.g., pickling vinegar).

 

 

Question 72

The food grain production in India during the year 2011-12 was approximately:

1. 221 million tonnes
2. 180 million tonnes
3. 293 million tonnes
4. 259 million tonnes

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• India’s food grain production in 2011-12was approximately 259 million tonnes (record production at that time).
  • Rice – ~105 million tonnes.
  • Wheat – ~95 million tonnes.
  • Coarse grains – ~40 million tonnes.
  • Pulses – ~18 million tonnes.

 

 

Question 73

Mendel verified true-breeding pea plants for certain traits before undertaking his experiments. The term “true-breeding” refers to:

1. Genetically pure lines
2. Organisms that have a high rate of reproduction
3. A kind of breeding in which the parents with a particular phenotype produce offspring only with the same phenotype
4. Both 1 and 3

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• True-breeding– Organisms that are genetically pure (homozygous) for a trait and produce offspring with the same phenotype when self-pollinated.
• Mendel verified that his pea plants were true-breeding before crossing them.

 

 

Question 74

The headquarters of ICRISAT are situated at:

1. Geneva
2. Hyderabad
3. Paris
4. Washington

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• ICRISAT (International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics)– Headquarters in Patancheru, Hyderabad, Telangana, India.
• Mandate crops: Sorghum, pearl millet, chickpea, pigeon pea, groundnut.

 

 

Question 75

Certified seed is produced from:

1. Nucleus seed
2. Breeder seed
3. Foundation seed
4. Registered seed

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Seed multiplication chain:
  • Nucleus seed→ Breeder seed → Foundation seed → Certified seed → Truthful seed
• Certified seedis produced from Foundation seed.
• Foundation seedis produced from Breeder seed.

 

 

Question 76

India ranks first in the production of:

1. Wheat
2. Rice
3. Tea
4. Pulses

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• India is the largest producer of pulsesin the world (about 25% of global production).
• Major pulses: Chickpea (largest producer), pigeon pea (largest producer), green gram, black gram.
• Wheat– India ranks second (after China).
• Rice– India ranks second (after China).
• Tea– India ranks second (after China).

 

 

Question 77

Minimum support prices for various crops are recommended by:

1. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)
2. Commission for Agricultural Cost and Prices (CACP)
3. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
4. Forward Markets Commission

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• CACP (Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices)– Recommends MSP for major crops in India.
• ICAR– Research body.
• Ministry of Commerce– Trade related.
• Forward Markets Commission– Regulates commodity futures.

 

 

Question 78

Food Safety and Standards Act, under which the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India was established was passed in the year:

1. 1955
2. 1973
3. 2006
4. 2011

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Food Safety and Standards Act (FSS Act)– Passed in 2006.
• FSSAI (Food Safety and Standards Authority of India)– Established under the FSS Act, operational from 2011.
• Consolidates various food laws (PFA Act, 1954; Fruit Products Order, 1955; etc.).

 

 

Question 79

The physical location of a particular gene on a chromosome is called:

1. Allele
2. Locus
3. Trait
4. Chromatid

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Locus (plural: loci)– The fixed physical position (location) of a gene on a chromosome.
• Allele– Alternative form of a gene at the same locus.
• Trait– Observable characteristic.
• Chromatid– One copy of a duplicated chromosome.

 

 

Question 80

Concept of diallel selective mating was developed by:

1. Mather and Jinks (1971)
2. Jensen (1970)
3. Russel (1978)
4. Simmonds (1979)

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Diallel selective mating (DSM)– A breeding method proposed by Jensen (1970) to combine the advantages of pedigree, recurrent selection, and diallel crossing.
  • Allows selection for both general and specific combining ability.
  • Used for population improvement in cross-pollinated crops.