Question 1

Removing the dried and older leaves in sugarcane is called:

1. Detrashing
2. Desuckering
3. Propping
4. Arrowing

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Detrashing– Removal of dried, old, and lower leaves from sugarcane plants to improve air circulation, reduce pest and disease incidence (e.g., scale insects, mealybugs), and facilitate better light penetration.
• Desuckering– Removal of side shoots (suckers) in crops like banana, tobacco, and tomato.
• Propping– Supporting sugarcane stalks with soil or using poles to prevent lodging.
• Arrowing– The process of flowering (arrow emergence) in sugarcane; usually undesirable as it reduces sugar content.

 

 

Question 2

The ideal months suitable for planting fruit trees are:

1. February – March
2. March – May
3. June – September
4. October – January

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• The ideal time for planting fruit trees in India is during the dormant periodbefore the onset of active growth.
• October – January– This period is suitable because:
  • Cooler temperatures reduce transplant shock.
  • Adequate soil moisture (post-monsoon) helps establishment.
  • Roots can establish before the summer heat.
• February – May– Too hot; planting is stressful.
• June – September– Heavy rains can cause waterlogging and root rot.

 

 

Question 3

Mango is an important:

1. Temperate fruit
2. Sub-tropical fruit
3. Tropical fruit
4. Humid zone fruit

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Mango (Mangifera indica)is a tropical fruit.
  • Requires warm temperatures (24–27°C) for growth and fruiting.
  • Cannot tolerate frost (temperate fruit).
  • Grown in tropical and subtropical regions, but is classified as tropical.
• Temperate fruits– Apple, pear, peach, plum, cherry (require chilling).
• Sub-tropical fruits– Citrus, loquat, avocado.
• Humid zone fruits– Not a standard classification.

 

 

Question 4

The herbicide commonly used for pulse crops is:

1. Pendimethalin
2. Butachlor
3. Atrazine
4. Glyphosate

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Pendimethalin– A pre-emergence herbicide widely used in pulse crops (chickpea, pigeon pea, green gram, black gram) to control grassy and broadleaf weeds.
• Butachlor– Used in rice (pre-emergence for control of grassy weeds).
• Atrazine– Used in maize and sugarcane.
• Glyphosate– Non-selective, used for total vegetation control (not safe for pulses).

 

 

Question 5

Seed rate for wheat is:

1. 50 kg/ha
2. 75 kg/ha
3. 100 kg/ha
4. 150 kg/ha

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• The recommended seed rate for wheat in India is 100–125 kg/hadepending on variety, sowing method, and seed size.
• 100 kg/hais the standard for normal sowing (drill sowing).
• Seed rate factors:
  • Timely sowing – 100 kg/ha.
  • Late sowing – 125–150 kg/ha.
  • Broadcast sowing – Higher seed rate.
• Seed rate for other crops:Rice – 40–50 kg/ha, maize – 20–25 kg/ha, pulses – 50–80 kg/ha.

 

 

Question 6

Ca, Mg and S are called:

1. Major nutrients
2. Secondary nutrients
3. Micronutrients
4. Functional nutrients

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Secondary nutrients– Calcium (Ca), Magnesium (Mg), and Sulphur (S).
  • They are required in smaller amounts than primary nutrients (N, P, K) but larger amounts than micronutrients.
• Primary nutrients (Macronutrients)– Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potassium (K).
• Micronutrients– Fe, Zn, Mn, Cu, B, Mo, Cl, Ni.
• Functional nutrients– Not a standard classification.

 

 

Question 7

The ability of a pathogen to cause disease is:

1. Pathogenicity
2. Virulence
3. Pathogenesis
4. Aggressiveness

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Pathogenicity– The ability of a pathogen to cause disease (qualitative, either pathogenic or not).
• Virulence– The degree or intensity of pathogenicity (quantitative; how severe the disease is).
• Pathogenesis– The process by which a disease develops (mechanism of infection and symptom development).
• Aggressiveness– A component of virulence; the rate of disease development.

 

 

Question 8

Green ear is characteristic symptom of:

1. Maize downy mildew
2. Sorghum downy mildew
3. Pearl millet downy mildew
4. Grapevine downy mildew

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Green ear of bajra (pearl millet)– Caused by the downy mildew fungus Sclerospora graminicola.
  • Symptoms:The inflorescence is transformed into green, leafy structures (phyllody), resembling a “green ear”. The affected ear is sterile.
• Maize downy mildew– Peronosclerospora; symptoms include leaf striping and stunting.
• Sorghum downy mildew– Peronosclerospora sorghi; symptoms include leaf chlorosis and stunting.
• Grapevine downy mildew– Plasmopara viticola; symptoms include yellow spots on leaves and white downy growth.

 

 

Question 9

Presence of ‘B’ line plants in ‘A’ line are called as:

1. Volunteer plant
2. Off-types
3. Pollen shedder
4. Rogue

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• In the CMS (Cytoplasmic Male Sterility)system for hybrid seed production:
  • A line– Male sterile line (female parent).
  • B line– Maintainer line (isogenic fertile, used to maintain A line).
  • R line– Restorer line (male parent).
• Pollen shedder– If a B line plant (male fertile) is present in the A line (male sterile), it will shed pollen and contaminate the A line seeds, making them non-sterile.
• Off-types– Plants that differ from the expected variety (general term).
• Rogue– Removal of off-type plants (rouging).

 

 

Question 10

The cover enclosing the plumule is:

1. Coleorhiza
2. Scutellum
3. Coleoptile
4. Aleurone layer

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Coleoptile– A protective sheath that covers the plumule (shoot) in monocot seeds (e.g., grasses, cereals). It pushes upward through the soil during germination.
• Coleorhiza– A protective sheath covering the radicle (root) in monocots.
• Scutellum– A single cotyledon in monocots that absorbs nutrients from the endosperm.
• Aleurone layer– The outermost layer of the endosperm (protein-rich) that secretes hydrolytic enzymes during germination.

 

 

Question 11

Pureline selection is advocated in:

1. Self pollinated crops
2. Cross pollinated crops
3. Often cross pollinated crops
4. Tree crops

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Pureline selection– A breeding method used in self-pollinated crops.
  • A pureline is a population derived from a single homozygous plant (genetically uniform).
  • Selection is practiced in self-pollinated crops to isolate and multiply superior purelines.
  • Examples: Wheat, rice, barley, pulses.
• Cross-pollinated crops– Use mass selection, recurrent selection, or hybrid breeding.
• Often cross pollinated crops– Use a combination of methods.
• Tree crops– Vegetative propagation or recurrent selection.

 

 

Question 12

Leguminous plants are nodulated by:

1. Rhizobium
2. Azospirillum irakense
3. Frankia
4. Gluconacetobacter diazotrophicus

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Rhizobium– Symbiotic nitrogen-fixing bacteria that form nodules on legume roots (e.g., pea, bean, soybean, chickpea, pigeon pea).
• Azospirillum– Free-living or associative nitrogen fixer (non-symbiotic, found in grass rhizosphere).
• Frankia– Symbiotic nitrogen fixer that forms nodules on non-leguminous plants (e.g., Alnus, Casuarina).
• Gluconacetobacter diazotrophicus– Endophytic nitrogen fixer in sugarcane.

 

 

Question 13

Substrate used for commercial ethanol production is:

1. Cane Molasses
2. Beet Molasses
3. Sugar
4. Sucrose

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Cane molasses– A by-product of the sugar industry (sugarcane processing). It is the most common and economical substrate for commercial ethanol production.
  • Contains 40–50% fermentable sugars (sucrose, glucose, fructose).
  • Yeast (Saccharomyces cerevisiae) ferments sugars to ethanol.
• Beet molasses– Also used but less common in India.
• Sugar/sucrose– Too expensive for commercial ethanol production.
• Other substrates:Corn (starch-based), sugarcane juice, cellulosic biomass.

 

 

Question 14

Fertilized egg is called as:

1. Megagametophyte
2. Microgametophyte
3. Zygote
4. Embryo

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Zygote– The fertilized egg (diploid) formed by the fusion of male and female gametes (sperm and egg).
• Megagametophyte– The female gametophyte (embryo sac in angiosperms).
• Microgametophyte– The male gametophyte (pollen grain).
• Embryo– The early stage of development after the zygote undergoes cell division.

 

 

Question 15

The contribution of Chickpea to the total pulse production of India is:

1. 50%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 60%

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Chickpea (Bengal gram) contributes approximately 50% of total pulse productionin India.
• India is the largest producer of chickpea in the world (over 70% of global production).
• Major chickpea-producing states: Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan, Karnataka.
• Other pulses:Pigeon pea (red gram) – about 20-25%, green gram, black gram.

 

 

Question 16

Cultivated sugarcane is classified into:

1. Two species
2. Three species
3. Four species
4. Five species

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Cultivated sugarcane is classified into three species:
  1. Saccharum officinarum– Noble cane (thick stems, high sugar, low fibre).
  2. Saccharum sinense– Thin stems, hardy, used in some regions (e.g., Pansahi, Nargori).
  3. Saccharum barberi– Thin stems, hardy, drought-tolerant (e.g., Mungo, Chunnee).
• Wild species: spontaneum, S. robustum.
• Nobilization– Crossing  officinarum with wild species to combine high sugar with hardiness.

 

 

Question 17

Which of the following bacteria produce endospores?

1. Pseudomonas
2. Agrobacterium
3. Xanthomonas
4. Bacillus

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• Bacillus– A genus of Gram-positive bacteria that produce endospores (e.g.,  subtilis, B. thuringiensis, B. cereus).
  • Endospores are highly resistant structures that allow survival under adverse conditions (heat, desiccation, chemicals).
• Pseudomonas– Gram-negative, does not produce endospores.
• Agrobacterium– Gram-negative, no endospores.
• Xanthomonas– Gram-negative, no endospores.
• Other endospore formers:Clostridium (anaerobic).

 

 

Question 18

The genetic constitution of male sterile line in CGMS system involving single dominant fertility restorer gene useful for commercial hybrid seed production is:

1. rf rf with sterile cytoplasm
2. rf rf with normal cytoplasm
3. Rf Rf with sterile cytoplasm
4. Rf Rf with normal cytoplasm

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• In CGMS (Cytoplasmic Genetic Male Sterility):
  • Male sterile line (A line)– Has sterile cytoplasm (S) and recessive restorer genes (rf rf) . Genotype: S (rf rf).
  • Maintainer line (B line)– Has normal cytoplasm (N) and recessive restorer genes (rf rf) . Genotype: N (rf rf).
  • Restorer line (R line)– Has sterile cytoplasm or normal cytoplasm and dominant restorer genes (Rf Rf) . Genotype: S (Rf Rf) or N (Rf Rf).
• For commercial hybrid seed production, the male sterile line is S (rf rf)→ Option 1.

 

 

Question 19

The basic unit of cellulose is:

1. β 1–4 Glucose
2. β 1–6 Glucose
3. α 1–4 Glucose
4. β 1–2 Glucose

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Cellulose– A linear polysaccharide composed of β-D-glucose units linked by β(1→4) glycosidic bonds.
• β(1→4) linkage– The glucose units are oriented in opposite directions (alternating), giving cellulose its strength and insolubility.
• α(1→4) glucose– Found in starch (amylose).
• β(1→6)– Found in some branched polysaccharides.

 

 

Question 20

Which of the following crops is an indeterminate pulse crop?

1. Blackgram
2. Redgram
3. Greengram
4. Chickpea

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Indeterminate growth– The main stem continues to grow and produce flowers/fruits throughout the growing season (flowering is not terminal).
• Red gram (Pigeon pea, Cajanus cajan)– An indeterminate pulse crop (especially late-maturing varieties). Flowering continues over a long period, allowing multiple harvests.
• Blackgram, greengram, chickpea– Determinate (growth stops after terminal flowering, synchronous maturity).
• Importance:Indeterminate varieties are suitable for rainfed conditions and long growing seasons.

 

 

Question 21

Serious pest of chickpea that causes damage up to 75 per cent reduction in yield is:

1. Prodenia (armyworm)
2. Thrips
3. Gram pod borer
4. Aphids

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Gram pod borer (Helicoverpa armigera)– The most serious pest of chickpea, causing up to 75% yield reduction.
  • Larvae feed on leaves, flowers, and pods, causing extensive damage.
• Prodenia– Armyworm; can damage but not as severe as pod borer.
• Thrips, aphids– Minor pests in chickpea.
• Management:Host resistance, biological control (Bacillus thuringiensis, Trichogramma), insecticides.

 

 

Question 22

The most critical stage in wheat for irrigation is:

1. Crown root initiation stage
2. Tillering stage
3. Maturity stage
4. Seedling stage

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Crown root initiation (CRI) stage– Occurs about 20–25 days after sowing. This is the most critical stage for irrigation in wheat because:
  • Roots are actively developing.
  • Water stress at this stage severely affects plant establishment and yield.
• Tillering stage– Also important but less critical than CRI.
• Maturity stage– Irrigation is reduced or stopped.
• Seedling stage– Early irrigation is important but CRI is more critical.
• Irrigation schedule for wheat:CRI → Tillering → Booting → Flowering → Grain filling.

 

 

Question 23

Alphonso is an important variety of:

1. Guava
2. Potato
3. Mango
4. Grapes

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Alphonso– A premium, world-famous mango variety grown mainly in Maharashtra (Ratnagiri, Devgad, Sindhudurg) , also in Gujarat and Karnataka.
  • Known for its rich sweetness, aroma, and smooth, non-fibrous texture.
  • Has Geographical Indication (GI)
• Other popular mango varieties:Dasheri, Langra, Chausa, Kesar, Hapus (Alphonso), Totapuri, Neelam.

 

 

Question 24

Interveinal chlorosis is caused due to the deficiency of:

1. Zinc
2. Magnesium
3. Copper
4. Iron

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Interveinal chlorosis– Yellowing of leaves between the veins while veins remain green.
• Magnesium (Mg) deficiency– Causes interveinal chlorosis in older leaves because Mg is mobile and translocated to younger leaves.
  • Mg is a central component of the chlorophyll molecule.
• Iron (Fe) deficiency– Also causes interveinal chlorosis but in younger leaves (immobile).
• Zinc deficiency– Interveinal chlorosis with stunted growth (white bud in maize).
• Copper deficiency– Wilting, dieback, not primarily interveinal chlorosis.

 

 

Question 25

Phosphorus is essential for:

1. Root development
2. Flowering
3. Branching
4. Quality improvement

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Phosphorus (P)– A primary macronutrient essential for:
  • Root development– Promotes early and vigorous root growth.
  • Energy transfer (ATP formation).
  • Nucleic acid synthesis (DNA, RNA).
  • Cell membrane structure (phospholipids).
• Flowering, branching, quality improvement– Also influenced by P, but root development is the most specific and well-known function.
• P deficiency symptoms:Stunted growth, dark green or reddish-purple leaves (anthocyanin accumulation), poor root system.

 

 

Question 26

The nutrient responsible for drought resistance in crops is:

1. Nitrogen
2. Magnesium
3. Potassium
4. Phosphorus

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Potassium (K)– Plays a key role in drought resistance by:
  • Regulating stomatal closure(reduces water loss).
  • Maintaining turgor pressure(osmotic adjustment).
  • Activating enzymes involved in stress tolerance.
• Nitrogen– Promotes vegetative growth, which can increase water demand (not drought resistance).
• Magnesium– Chlorophyll component, not directly for drought resistance.
• Phosphorus– Root development, but not specifically for drought resistance.

 

 

Question 27

Rural development programmes in a district are operated by:

1. JDA
2. DDA
3. DRDA
4. DFO

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• DRDA (District Rural Development Agency)– The main agency responsible for planning and implementing rural development programmes at the district level in India.
  • Implements schemes like MGNREGA, PMAY-G, NRLM, etc.
• JDA– Joint Development Authority (not common).
• DDA– Delhi Development Authority (urban).
• DFO– Divisional Forest Officer.

 

 

Question 28

Phalaris minor is a problematic weed in:

1. Rice
2. Potato
3. Chickpea
4. Wheat

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• Phalaris minor(Canary grass) – A problematic weed in wheat fields, especially in the Indo-Gangetic plains (Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh).
  • It is a grassy weed that competes with wheat for water, nutrients, and light.
  • Has developed resistanceto many herbicides, particularly isoproturon.
• Rice– Main weeds are Echinochloa, Cyperus.
• Potato, chickpea– Not major hosts for  minor.

 

 

Question 29

In chickpea, excess irrigation:

1. Increases yield
2. Decreases yield
3. Improves quality
4. No effect

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Chickpea– A drought-tolerant pulse crop, sensitive to waterlogging and excess moisture.
• Excess irrigationleads to:
  • Root rot diseases (e.g., Fusariumwilt, Rhizoctonia).
  • Poor nodulation and nitrogen fixation.
  • Reduced yield and quality.
• Recommended practice:Chickpea is grown on residual soil moisture after kharif crops. Only one or two irrigations (if needed) at critical stages (pod development).

 

 

Question 30

Cell wall of higher fungi contains:

1. Muramic acid
2. Glucans
3. Chitin
4. Both glucans and chitin

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• The cell wall of true fungi (higher fungi)is composed primarily of chitin (a polysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine) and β-glucans (polysaccharides of glucose).
• Chitin– Provides structural strength.
• β-glucans– Provide flexibility and function in cell wall organization.
• Muramic acid– Found in bacterial cell walls (peptidoglycan), not in fungi.
• Other components:Mannoproteins, glycoproteins.

 

 

Question 31

Cell wall of higher fungi contains:

1. Muramic acid
2. Glucans
3. Chitin
4. Both glucans and chitin

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• The cell wall of true fungi (higher fungi)is composed primarily of chitin (a polysaccharide of N-acetylglucosamine) and β-glucans (polysaccharides of glucose).
• Chitin– Provides structural strength.
• β-glucans– Provide flexibility and function in cell wall organization.
• Muramic acid– Found in bacterial cell walls (peptidoglycan), not in fungi.

 

 

Question 32

Process of gene transfer from donor cells to recipient cell with the help of virus/bacteriophages is called:

1. Conjugation
2. Transduction
3. Transformation
4. Replication

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Transduction– The transfer of bacterial DNA from one cell to another by a bacteriophage (virus) .
  • Generalized transduction– Any bacterial gene can be transferred.
  • Specialized transduction– Only specific genes near the prophage integration site are transferred.
• Conjugation– Direct cell-to-cell transfer via pilus (mediated by F-plasmid).
• Transformation– Uptake of free (naked) DNA from the environment.
• Replication– DNA duplication.

 

 

Question 33

Plant viruses enter host cells only through:

1. Stomata
2. Lenticel
3. Hydathodes
4. Wounds

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• Plant viruses are obligate intracellular pathogens. They cannot penetrate the intact plant cell wall on their own.
• They require wounds(mechanical damage) or vector feeding (insects, nematodes, mites) to enter host cells.
• Stomata, lenticels, hydathodes– Entry points for bacteria and fungi, not for viruses.
• Exceptions:Some viruses (e.g., tobacco mosaic virus) can enter through minor abrasions or via pollen.

 

 

Question 34

The first plant virus to look in an electron microscopic picture was:

1. TMV
2. CMV
3. PVX
4. Tulip breaking virus

Correct Answer: 1

Explanation:

• Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)– The first plant virus to be visualized under an electron microscope.
  • In 1939, Kausche, Pfankuch, and Ruska (using an electron microscope) observed TMV particles.
  • TMV was also the first virus to be crystallized (Wendell Stanley, 1935).
• CMV (Cucumber mosaic virus)– Later studied.
• PVX (Potato virus X)– Also studied later.
• Tulip breaking virus– Historically important for causing tulipomania (17th century), but not the first seen under EM.

 

 

Question 35

The safest and most effective method of plant disease control is:

1. Chemical control
2. Resistant varieties
3. Biological control
4. Cross protection

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Resistant varieties– The safest, most economical, and most effective method of plant disease control.
  • No environmental pollution (unlike chemicals).
  • No additional cost to farmers after variety release.
  • Durable if resistance is horizontal/polygenic.
• Chemical control– Effective but expensive, hazardous to environment and human health.
• Biological control– Safe but not always effective against all diseases.
• Cross protection– Mild strain protects against severe strain (limited application).

 

 

Question 36

The process of initial water uptake by seeds prior to germination is:

1. Dehydration
2. Imbibition
3. Desiccation
4. Impermeation

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Imbibition– The initial process of water absorption by seeds due to the hydrophilic nature of seed coat components (cellulose, hemicellulose, proteins).
  • Causes seed swelling and softens the seed coat.
  • Activates metabolic processes required for germination.
• Dehydration, desiccation– Loss of water.
• Impermeation– Not a standard term for water uptake.

 

 

Question 37

GA synthesis and signaling dominate the transition of:

1. Dormancy
2. Sensitivity
3. Germination
4. Receptivity

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• Gibberellic acid (GA)– Promotes germination by:
  • Activating hydrolytic enzymes (e.g., α-amylase) in the aleurone layer of cereal seeds.
  • Mobilizing stored food reserves.
  • Overcoming seed dormancy.
• ABA (Abscisic acid)– Promotes dormancy (antagonistic to GA).
• Transition from dormancy to germinationis regulated by the balance of GA and ABA.

 

 

Question 38

ODV test is mainly conducted for:

1. Rice
2. Cotton
3. Onion
4. Castor

Correct Answer: 3

Explanation:

• ODV test (Oligo DNA test)– Not a standard common term. Possibly refers to a test for onion (maybe for detection of latent viruses or genetic purity?).
• Given the answer key, the correct answer is Onion→ Option 3.

 

 

Question 39

Endospermic dicot seed is:

1. Chickpea
2. Bean
3. Groundnut
4. Fenugreek

Correct Answer: 4

Explanation:

• Endospermic (albuminous) seeds– Retain endosperm at maturity; cotyledons may be thin.
• Fenugreek (Trigonella foenum-graecum)– An endospermic dicot seed (endosperm present at maturity).
• Chickpea, bean, groundnut– Non-endospermic (exalbuminous) seeds (endosperm is consumed during development; cotyledons are fleshy and store food).

 

 

Question 40

RNA and protein synthesis is stimulated in the stage of:

1. Pre-germination
2. Germination
3. Post-germination
4. Both, pre and post-germination

Correct Answer: 2

Explanation:

• Germination stage– RNA and protein synthesis are stimulated because:
  • mRNA is transcribed from stored DNA.
  • New enzymes (e.g., α-amylase) are synthesized for mobilization of stored food.
  • Cell division and elongation begin.
• Pre-germination– Metabolic activity is minimal (dry seed).
• Post-germination– Continued growth, but the major activation occurs at germination.