1000 Most Important Agronomy MCQs with Explanation for ICAR JRF, NET, AFO & All Agriculture Exams
The “corrugation method” of irrigation is a variation of furrow irrigation used for: a) Rice paddies b) Close-growing crops on steep slopes c) Orchards on flat land d) Vegetable nursery beds
Answer: b) Close-growing crops on steep slopes
*Explanation: The corrugation method uses small, closely spaced furrows (corrugations) to irrigate close-growing crops (pastures, alfalfa) on steep slopes (up to 12%). The small furrows prevent erosion and allow water distribution on slopes where border strips would cause erosion. It’s commonly used for forage crops in hilly areas .*
The “drip irrigation” method is also known as: a) Sprinkler irrigation b) Trickle irrigation c) Furrow irrigation d) Basin irrigation
Answer: b) Trickle irrigation
*Explanation: Drip irrigation, also called trickle irrigation, involves applying water slowly and directly to the plant root zone through emitters (drippers) at low flow rates (2-10 liters/hour). It delivers water precisely where needed, minimizing evaporation, runoff, and deep percolation. Water use efficiency can exceed 90% .*
The most critical component of a drip irrigation system that prevents emitter clogging is: a) Pressure regulator b) Fertilizer tank c) Filtration system d) Air release valve
Answer: c) Filtration system
*Explanation: Filtration is the most critical component of drip irrigation systems as emitters have very small flow passages (0.3-2.0 mm) and are prone to clogging. Types of filters include: screen filters (for coarse particles), media filters (sand filters for organic matter), and hydrocyclone filters (for sand separation from well water). Proper filtration ensures system longevity and uniform water distribution .*
The “hydrocyclone filter” (sand separator) in drip irrigation is used to remove: a) Dissolved salts b) Sand particles from well water c) Organic matter d) Algae
Answer: b) Sand particles from well water
Explanation: A hydrocyclone filter (or sand separator) uses centrifugal force to separate sand and heavy particles from well water. Water enters tangentially, creating a vortex; heavier sand particles are thrown to the walls and settle at the bottom, while clean water exits through the top. It is essential for wells with high sand content to protect downstream filters and emitters .
The “pressure regulator” in drip irrigation maintains: a) Constant flow rate b) Constant pressure regardless of inlet pressure variations c) Water quality d) Temperature
Answer: b) Constant pressure regardless of inlet pressure variations
*Explanation: A pressure regulator (pressure-reducing valve) maintains a constant, pre-set outlet pressure regardless of fluctuations in inlet pressure. Drip emitters require specific pressure ranges (typically 10-30 psi) for uniform discharge. Without pressure regulation, pressure variations cause uneven water distribution .*
The “emitter flow rate” in drip irrigation is typically expressed in: a) Liters per hour (LPH) b) Liters per minute c) Cubic meters per hour d) Millimeters per hour
Answer: a) Liters per hour (LPH)
*Explanation: Emitter flow rate (discharge) is expressed in liters per hour (LPH). Common flow rates: 2 LPH, 4 LPH, 8 LPH for button drippers, and 8-16 LPH for micro-sprinklers. The total system flow rate determines pump capacity and pipe sizing .*
The “coefficient of uniformity” (Cu) for sprinkler irrigation should ideally be above: a) 50% b) 65% c) 75% d) 85%
Answer: d) 85%
*Explanation: The coefficient of uniformity (Cu), developed by Christiansen, measures how uniformly water is distributed over the irrigated area. For well-designed sprinkler systems, Cu should exceed 85%. Low uniformity results in some areas receiving too much water (waste, leaching) and others too little (crop stress). Cu is calculated from catch can measurements .*
In sprinkler irrigation, “overlap” refers to: a) Water falling outside the field b) Spray from adjacent sprinklers covering the same area c) Excess pressure d) Nozzle clogging
Answer: b) Spray from adjacent sprinklers covering the same area
*Explanation: Overlap in sprinkler systems means that the spray patterns from adjacent sprinklers cover the same area to ensure uniform water distribution. Typically, sprinklers are spaced so that each point receives water from at least two sprinklers (50-70% overlap). Proper spacing (based on pressure, nozzle size, and wind conditions) is essential for uniformity .*
The “peak rate of moisture use” by the crop in the irrigation scheduling problem from Set 27, Question 665 was: a) 2.0 mm/day b) 3.0 mm/day c) 4.0 mm/day d) 5.0 mm/day
Answer: c) 4.0 mm/day
*Explanation: In the calculation problem (Question 665), the peak rate of moisture use was given as 4.0 mm/day. This represents the maximum daily water consumption by the crop during its most critical growth stage. This value is used to determine the irrigation interval (20 days) by dividing the net irrigation depth (80 mm) by the daily use rate .*
The “critical stage” for irrigation in groundnut is: a) Germination b) Pegging and pod development c) Flowering initiation d) Vegetative growth
Answer: b) Pegging and pod development
Explanation: In groundnut, the most critical stage for irrigation is during pegging (when pegs enter the soil) and pod development. Moisture stress during this stage reduces peg penetration, pod formation, and kernel development. Adequate soil moisture is essential for proper peg development, as groundnut requires moist soil for pegs to enter and pods to develop .
The “critical stage” for irrigation in maize is: a) Knee-high stage b) Tasseling and silking c) Grain filling d) Germination
Answer: b) Tasseling and silking
Explanation: In maize, the most critical period for irrigation is during tasseling (male flower emergence) and silking (female flower emergence). Moisture stress during this period causes poor pollination, resulting in poorly filled cobs (gappy cobs). This stage is also called the “flowering” or “reproductive” stage .
The “critical stage” for irrigation in cotton is: a) Seedling stage b) Square formation and flowering c) Boll development d) Maturity
Answer: b) Square formation and flowering
Explanation: In cotton, the most critical period for irrigation is during square formation (flower bud development) and flowering. Moisture stress during this period causes square and flower shedding, directly reducing yield. Boll development stage is also sensitive but slightly less critical than flowering .
The “critical stage” for irrigation in pulses (chickpea, pigeonpea) is: a) Vegetative growth b) Flowering and pod formation c) Seedling stage d) Maturity
Answer: b) Flowering and pod formation
Explanation: For pulses (chickpea, pigeonpea, green gram, black gram), the most critical stage for irrigation is during flowering and pod formation. Moisture stress during this period reduces flower retention, pod set, and seed development. Pod filling is also sensitive but secondary to flowering .
The “critical stage” for irrigation in potato is: a) Stolonization and tuber initiation b) Vegetative growth c) Senescence d) Sprouting
Answer: a) Stolonization and tuber initiation
Explanation: In potato, the most critical period for irrigation is during stolonization (stolon formation) and tuber initiation. Moisture stress during this stage reduces tuber number and size. Tuber bulking (subsequent growth) is also sensitive but less critical than initiation. Consistent moisture throughout the season is essential for quality tuber production .
The “critical stage” for irrigation in sugarcane is: a) Germination b) Tillering c) Grand growth phase (formative stage) d) Maturity
Answer: c) Grand growth phase (formative stage)
*Explanation: In sugarcane, the grand growth phase (120-270 days after planting) is the most critical for irrigation. This period of rapid cane elongation requires maximum water. Moisture stress during this phase reduces cane length, thickness, and sucrose accumulation. Sugarcane requires 20-30 irrigations depending on climate .*
The term “water use efficiency” (WUE) is defined as: a) Water applied / Yield obtained b) Yield obtained (economic yield) / Water used (evapotranspiration) c) Water stored / Water applied d) Evapotranspiration / Yield
Answer: b) Yield obtained (economic yield) / Water used (evapotranspiration)
Explanation: Water use efficiency (WUE) is the ratio of crop yield (economic yield in kg/ha) to the amount of water used (evapotranspiration in mm or m³/ha). It is expressed as kg/ha-mm or kg/m³. Higher WUE means “more crop per drop” – producing more yield with less water. This is a key concept in water-scarce regions .
The “irrigation water use efficiency” (IWUE) considers: a) Total water applied (including rainfall) b) Only irrigation water applied (excluding effective rainfall) c) Only evapotranspiration d) Only conveyance losses
Answer: b) Only irrigation water applied (excluding effective rainfall)
Explanation: Irrigation Water Use Efficiency (IWUE) specifically considers the contribution of irrigation water to yield, excluding effective rainfall. It is calculated as: IWUE = (Yield under irrigation – Yield under rainfed) / Irrigation water applied. This isolates the effect of irrigation from rainfall contribution .
The “effective rainfall” for crop water requirement calculations is defined as: a) Total rainfall received b) Portion of rainfall that is stored in root zone and available for crop use c) Rainfall minus runoff d) Rainfall that causes flooding
Answer: b) Portion of rainfall that is stored in the root zone and available for crop use
Explanation: Effective rainfall is the portion of total rainfall that is stored in the crop root zone and available for meeting crop water requirements. It excludes water lost to runoff, deep percolation beyond root zone, and interception. Various methods (USDA SCS, FAO) are used to estimate effective rainfall for irrigation scheduling .
The “pyfao56” Python package developed by USDA-ARS is used for: a) Crop yield forecasting b) Evapotranspiration-based water balance modeling and automated irrigation scheduling c) Soil testing d) Pest prediction
Answer: b) Evapotranspiration-based water balance modeling and automated irrigation scheduling
*Explanation: The pyfao56 Python package, developed by USDA-ARS scientists (Thorp et al., 2025), is an open-source, evapotranspiration-based water balance model for irrigation management. It includes an “AutoIrrigate” methodology that computes irrigation schedules based on user-specified parameters (soil water status, plant water stress, ET replacement, precipitation forecasts) and can simulate different irrigation methods (furrow, sprinkler, drip) .*
The “HRLDAS” (High-Resolution Land Data Assimilation System) is used in advanced irrigation scheduling for: a) Generating timely and accurate soil moisture and evapotranspiration data b) Predicting pest outbreaks c) Forecasting fertilizer requirements d) Monitoring crop diseases
Answer: a) Generating timely and accurate soil moisture and evapotranspiration data
*Explanation: HRLDAS is a land data assimilation system used to generate high-resolution soil moisture and evapotranspiration data for irrigation management. Studies have shown that ET-water balance-based methods using HRLDAS products can save 10.6-33.5% irrigation water, while soil moisture-based methods save 7.2-37.4% without harming crop yield .*
The “IoT-enabled fuzzy logic irrigation control system” described in recent research uses: a) Only timers for irrigation scheduling b) Real-time soil moisture, temperature, and humidity data with fuzzy inference engine c) Only weather forecasts d) Manual observations
Answer: b) Real-time soil moisture, temperature, and humidity data with fuzzy inference engine
*Explanation: Recent research (2025) on smart irrigation systems uses IoT sensors to collect real-time soil moisture, ambient temperature, and humidity data, processed through a fuzzy logic inference engine. Such systems have demonstrated 31.4% water reduction compared to conventional methods, 12.7% compared to threshold-based AI, and 22.8% increase in crop yield with 98.6% reliability .*
The “HydroNet” deep reinforcement learning framework for irrigation scheduling aims to: a) Replace all human decision-making b) Automate reservoir management and irrigation scheduling for improved water use efficiency and crop yield c) Predict weather only d) Design irrigation systems
Answer: b) Automate reservoir management and irrigation scheduling for improved water use efficiency and crop yield
*Explanation: HydroNet is a deep reinforcement learning framework proposed in 2025 for automated reservoir management and irrigation scheduling. It outperforms traditional methods in water use efficiency, crop yield optimization, and resilience against environmental uncertainties through extensive simulations on benchmark datasets and real-life irrigation systems .*
The “CropWat model-based irrigation scheduling” compared to conventional farmer practice in the Ethiopian study showed that: a) Farmers used less water than required b) Farmers used significantly more water than crop requirements (over-irrigation) c) Model and farmer practice were identical d) Model used more water
Answer: b) Farmers used significantly more water than crop requirements (over-irrigation)
*Explanation: A 2025 study in the upper Blue Nile basin compared CropWat model-based irrigation scheduling with conventional farmer practice. Farmers over-irrigated onions by 104-141 mm (water depth) and teff by 95.7 mm, incurring extra fuel costs of 3146-3728 birr/ha. The study demonstrated that model-based scheduling improves water productivity and reduces costs .*
The “IRWI App” (IRrigation Water Information Application) developed for Egypt’s Delta region helps farmers: a) Sell their produce online b) Increase water productivity and improve irrigation efficiency c) Apply fertilizers d) Detect pests
Answer: b) Increase water productivity and improve irrigation efficiency
Explanation: The IRWI App is a mobile application developed by CGIAR researchers to help farmers in Egypt’s Delta region increase water productivity and improve irrigation efficiency of selected crops. It provides irrigation scheduling advice based on crop water requirements and real-time conditions, supporting informed decision-making for sustainable water use .
The “WaPOR” database, used in irrigation performance assessment tools, provides: a) Weather forecasts only b) High-resolution satellite data on water productivity and evapotranspiration c) Soil maps only d) Crop prices
Answer: b) High-resolution satellite data on water productivity and evapotranspiration
Explanation: WaPOR is FAO’s portal to monitor water productivity through open-access remote sensing data. It provides high-resolution data on evapotranspiration, biomass production, and water productivity. Tools like IPADT (Irrigation Performance Assessment and Diagnostics Tool) integrate WaPOR data with field observations to assess irrigation performance, identify underperforming areas, and support improved water management decisions
The “AgData Revolution” in modern agronomy primarily emphasizes: a) Collecting more data from multiple isolated sensors b) Standardization and connectivity of agricultural data for decision support systems c) Replacing all human decision-making with AI d) Increasing the number of field-level data entry operators
Answer: b) Standardization and connectivity of agricultural data for decision support systems
*Explanation: According to global agronomic trends for 2026, the focus has shifted from “Big Data” collection to “Decision Support.” The AgData Revolution emphasizes breaking down fragmented data siloes through standardization, allowing algorithms to analyze historical data and predict pest outbreaks or nutrient deficiencies with unprecedented accuracy. Israel has officially joined the European effort to lead AgData standardization, which is a game-changer for modern agronomy .*
“Climate-Smart Agriculture” (CSA) in 2026 has evolved from a mitigation strategy to: a) A production-maximization approach b) A defense strategy against daily operational climate hazards c) A purely organic farming certification requirement d) An export-oriented trade policy
Answer: b) A defense strategy against daily operational climate hazards
*Explanation: Climate change is no longer a future prediction but a daily operational hazard. Climate-Smart Agriculture for 2026 has evolved into a defense strategy, involving active protection measures such as smart netting, shading systems, and physiological hardening of plants using advanced biostimulants to improve tolerance to salinity and heat .*
CRISPR gene editing differs from traditional GMOs primarily because: a) It introduces foreign DNA from different species b) It allows precise edits within the plant’s existing genome without introducing foreign DNA c) It is slower than traditional breeding methods d) It requires heavy regulation in all countries
Answer: b) It allows precise edits within the plant’s existing genome without introducing foreign DNA
Explanation: Unlike traditional GMOs which introduce foreign DNA and face heavy regulation, CRISPR allows for precise edits within the plant’s existing genome. This enables development of drought-resistant varieties in a fraction of the time, and these gene-edited crops are increasingly classified separately from GMOs, allowing faster regulatory approval .
The “silent killer” in soybean fields that has expanded northward into areas historically not viewed as threatened is: a) Soybean aphid b) Root-Knot Nematodes (RKN) c) White mold d) Soybean rust
Answer: b) Root-Knot Nematodes (RKN)
*Explanation: Root-Knot Nematodes (RKN) are labelled “silent killers” because they cause severe, often fatal, damage with few early-season symptoms. For the 2026 season, RKN pressure has expanded northward into areas that historically didn’t view nematodes as a major threat, particularly along the Mississippi River Valley. Soybean varieties with resistance are limited, and diagnostic testing is becoming crucial .*
According to the RSSB Agriculture Supervisor Syllabus 2026, which of the following is NOT included in the Rajasthan-specific agronomy section? a) Traditional agronomic terminology in the Rajasthani language b) Major challenges affecting crop and horticultural production in Rajasthan c) Rice cultivation practices in the Gangetic plains d) Climate divisions and soil types of Rajasthan
Answer: c) Rice cultivation practices in the Gangetic plains
*Explanation: The RSSB Agriculture Supervisor Syllabus 2026 specifically focuses on Rajasthan’s agricultural context. It includes traditional Rajasthani terminology, state-specific challenges, climate divisions, and soil types of Rajasthan. Questions on rice cultivation in the Gangetic plains are not part of the Rajasthan-specific syllabus as they pertain to a different geographical region .*
The “Jaya” variety of rice was developed by crossing which two parents? a) IR-8 × Basmati 370 b) TN-1 × T-141 c) IR-8 × T(N)1 d) IR-20 × Ratna
Answer: c) IR-8 × T(N)1
*Explanation: Jaya, one of India’s most popular high-yielding rice varieties, was developed by crossing IR-8 and T(N)1 (Taichung Native-1). Released in 1968, it played a significant role in the Green Revolution. It has a duration of 130-135 days and yields 5-6 tons/ha under irrigated conditions .*
The “dwarfing genes” in Green Revolution wheat varieties were derived from: a) Norin 10 (Japanese dwarf wheat) b) Chinese Spring c) Kalyansona d) Sonalika
Answer: a) Norin 10 (Japanese dwarf wheat)
*Explanation: The dwarfing genes (Rht1 and Rht2) in high-yielding wheat varieties like Sonora 64 and Lerma Rojo came from Norin 10, a Japanese dwarf wheat variety. Dr. Norman Borlaug used these genes to develop semi-dwarf, lodging-resistant wheat varieties that responded well to high fertilizer doses, enabling the Green Revolution .*
“Quality Protein Maize” (QPM) contains enhanced levels of which two amino acids? a) Tryptophan and Methionine b) Lysine and Tryptophan c) Lysine and Methionine d) Threonine and Valine
Answer: b) Lysine and Tryptophan
*Explanation: Quality Protein Maize (QPM) contains the opaque-2 gene that enhances lysine and tryptophan content, making its protein quality comparable to milk protein. Normal maize is deficient in these essential amino acids. QPM varieties developed in India include Shaktiman-1, Shaktiman-2, and HQPM-1 .*
“HHB 67 Improved” is a variety of which crop resistant to downy mildew? a) Sorghum b) Pearl millet (Bajra) c) Maize d) Finger millet
Answer: b) Pearl millet (Bajra)
*Explanation: HHB 67 Improved is a high-yielding pearl millet variety developed for Rajasthan and Haryana. It has resistance to downy mildew (Sclerospora graminicola), which is a major disease in bajra. It matures in 70-75 days and is suitable for rainfed areas .*
The “CSH-16” is a popular hybrid of: a) Maize b) Sorghum (Jowar) c) Pearl millet d) Wheat
Answer: b) Sorghum (Jowar)
*Explanation: CSH-16 (ICSA 731 × C 43) is a popular sorghum hybrid developed by ICRISAT and released for cultivation in India. It has good grain yield, resistance to grain mold, and is suitable for both Kharif and Rabi seasons. It matures in 100-105 days and yields 35-40 q/ha .*
“BH 902” is a high-yielding variety of barley recommended for: a) Rainfed areas of Punjab and Haryana b) Irrigated areas of Kerala c) Hill regions of Uttarakhand d) Coastal Andhra Pradesh
Answer: a) Rainfed areas of Punjab and Haryana
*Explanation: BH 902 is a six-row barley variety developed by CCSHAU, Hisar. It is suitable for rainfed areas of Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, and Rajasthan. It has good drought tolerance, matures in 125-130 days, and yields 25-30 q/ha under rainfed conditions .*
“GG 20” is a groundnut variety developed by which university? a) PAU, Ludhiana b) JAU, Junagadh c) ANGRAU, Hyderabad d) TNAU, Coimbatore
Answer: b) JAU, Junagadh
*Explanation: GG 20 is a popular groundnut variety developed by Junagadh Agricultural University (JAU), Gujarat. It is a bunch-type variety with medium maturity (100-110 days), good oil content (48-50%), and tolerance to drought and diseases like rust and leaf spot. It yields 20-25 q/ha .*
“JS 335” is a popular soybean variety developed for which state? a) Punjab b) Madhya Pradesh c) Bihar d) Tamil Nadu
Answer: b) Madhya Pradesh
*Explanation: JS 335 was developed by JNKVV, Jabalpur and is one of the most popular soybean varieties in Madhya Pradesh, India’s largest soybean producing state. It has a duration of 100-105 days, yields 25-30 q/ha, and contains 18-20% oil and 38-40% protein. It is susceptible to yellow mosaic virus though .*
“CO 2” is a sunflower variety developed by: a) IARI, New Delhi b) TNAU, Coimbatore c) UAS, Bangalore d) PAU, Ludhiana
Answer: b) TNAU, Coimbatore
*Explanation: CO 2 is a sunflower variety developed by Tamil Nadu Agricultural University (TNAU), Coimbatore. It is a short-duration variety (80-85 days), suitable for Tamil Nadu conditions. It has oil content of 38-40% and yields 15-18 q/ha .*
“Pusa Bold” is a variety of: a) Indian mustard (Brassica juncea) b) Rapeseed (Brassica napus) c) Taramira (Eruca sativa) d) Gobhi sarson (Brassica napus)
Answer: a) Indian mustard (Brassica juncea)
*Explanation: Pusa Bold is a high-yielding Indian mustard (Brassica juncea) variety developed by IARI. It has bold seeds, high oil content (40-42%), and resistance to white rust. It matures in 130-140 days and yields 20-25 q/ha. It is suitable for cultivation in Delhi, Haryana, Punjab, and Uttar Pradesh .*
“RT 346” and “RT 351” are popular varieties of which oilseed crop in Rajasthan? a) Groundnut b) Sesame (Til) c) Mustard d) Castor
Answer: b) Sesame (Til)
*Explanation: RT 346 and RT 351 are high-yielding sesame varieties developed for Rajasthan conditions. They have good drought tolerance, mature in 80-90 days, and yield 6-8 q/ha. Rajasthan is a major sesame-producing state, and these varieties are popular among farmers .*
“F 846” is a desi cotton variety (Gossypium arboreum) developed for: a) Irrigated areas of Punjab b) Rainfed areas of Punjab c) Coastal areas of Gujarat d) Hill regions of Himachal
Answer: b) Rainfed areas of Punjab
*Explanation: F 846 is a desi cotton (Gossypium arboreum) variety developed by PAU, Ludhiana for rainfed areas of Punjab. It is drought-tolerant, has good fiber quality, and is suitable for areas with limited irrigation. It matures in 160-170 days and yields 8-10 q/ha of kapas .*
“Rajeev Lochan” and “Narendra Arhar-1” are varieties of: a) Chickpea b) Pigeonpea (Arhar) c) Green gram d) Black gram
Answer: b) Pigeonpea (Arhar)
*Explanation: Rajeev Lochan (ICP 8863) and Narendra Arhar-1 are popular pigeonpea varieties. Rajeev Lochan is a medium-duration variety (150-160 days) with resistance to Fusarium wilt, developed by ICRISAT. Narendra Arhar-1 (NDA 1) was developed by NDUAT, Faizabad for Uttar Pradesh conditions .*
“HC 5” is a chickpea variety developed by which university for Haryana conditions? a) PAU, Ludhiana b) CCSHAU, Hisar c) RAU, Durgapura d) JNKVV, Jabalpur
Answer: b) CCSHAU, Hisar
*Explanation: HC 5 is a desi chickpea variety developed by CCSHAU, Hisar for Haryana conditions. It has resistance to wilt and root rot, matures in 130-135 days, and yields 18-20 q/ha under irrigated conditions. It has good seed size and cooking quality .*
“GCH 7” is a popular hybrid of which crop developed by GAU? a) Groundnut b) Castor c) Cotton d) Sesame
Answer: b) Castor
*Explanation: GCH 7 is a castor hybrid developed by Gujarat Agricultural University (GAU). It is high-yielding (20-25 q/ha), has high oil content (48-50%), and resistance to wilt and root rot. It is suitable for Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu. Castor is an important oilseed crop in Gujarat .*
“Co 86032” is a popular sugarcane variety developed for which region? a) North India (subtropical) b) South India (tropical) c) Eastern India d) Hill regions
Answer: b) South India (tropical)
*Explanation: Co 86032 (also called Nannari) is a popular sugarcane variety developed by Sugarcane Breeding Institute, Coimbatore for tropical India. It is a mid-late maturing variety (12 months), high-yielding (100-120 t/ha), with high sugar content (18-19%). It occupies largest area in Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu .*
“Co 92020” is a sugarcane variety recommended for: a) Punjab and Haryana b) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu c) Bihar and West Bengal d) Uttarakhand and Himachal
Answer: b) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
*Explanation: Co 92020 is a sugarcane variety developed for Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu conditions. It is an early-maturing variety (10-11 months), high-yielding, with good ratooning ability and tolerance to red rot. It has sugar content of 18-19% .*
“JRC 7447” is a variety of which jute species? a) Corchorus olitorius (Tossa jute) b) Corchorus capsularis (White jute) c) Hibiscus cannabinus (Mesta) d) Crotalaria juncea (Sunhemp)
Answer: b) Corchorus capsularis (White jute)
*Explanation: JRC 7447 is a high-yielding variety of white jute (Corchorus capsularis) developed for West Bengal conditions. It has good fiber quality, resistance to stem rot, and yields 30-35 q/ha of fiber. It matures in 130-140 days and is popular among jute growers in eastern India .*
“AMV 4” is a variety of: a) Jute b) Mesta (Hibiscus sabdariffa) c) Sunhemp d) Ramie
Answer: b) Mesta (Hibiscus sabdariffa)
*Explanation: AMV 4 is a high-yielding variety of mesta (roselle, Hibiscus sabdariffa) developed for fiber production. It has good fiber strength, resistance to root rot, and yields 20-25 q/ha. It is suitable for cultivation in Odisha, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh .*
“JLS 95” is a linseed variety developed for: a) Irrigated conditions of Madhya Pradesh b) Rainfed conditions of Madhya Pradesh c) Hill regions d) Coastal areas
Answer: b) Rainfed conditions of Madhya Pradesh
*Explanation: JLS 95 is a linseed variety developed by JNKVV, Jabalpur for rainfed conditions of Madhya Pradesh. It has good drought tolerance, matures in 110-115 days, yields 8-10 q/ha, and has oil content of 40-42%. Madhya Pradesh is a major linseed-producing state .*
